Answer:
0.0903
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
The mean = 1450
The standard deviation = 220
sample mean = 1560
P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)
P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)
From the z tables;
P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915
P(X> 1560) = 0.3085
Let consider the given number of weeks = 52
Mean 
= np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042
The standard deviation = 
The standard deviation = 
The standard deviation = 3.3306
Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.
Then;
Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)
From z tables
P(Y > 20) 
0.0903
We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
Given:
Area of a circle, A=50.265 sq. units.
Radius of circle, r = 4 units.
To find:
The value of π to the nearest thousandth.
Solution:
Formula for area of a circle is
Now, using 
expression, we can find the value of π.
Approximate the value to the nearest thousandth (three digits after decimal).
Therefore, the approximated value of π is 3.142.
Answer:
infinite
Step-by-step explanation:
name two, and then find a third in between them.
you can repeat that as often as you want.
14.
1. 7 × 7 = 49
2. 7 × 3 × 3 = 63
3. 7 × 3 × 4 = 84
4. 7 + 3 + 4 = 14
Hope that helps! Feel free to ask for a more explanation, if needed.
