Answer:
The answer is -0.6
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope this helps. Sorry if I am wrong.
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
Upward, x intercept is (2,0) , y intercept is (0,1), axis of symmetry is 2, vertex is (2,0)
Step-by-step explanation:
Each year, your $3,425 which earn 3% simple interest earns $102.75. Multiplying this value by 15 gives $1541.25. Then, adding the latest value we have with the initial invest will finally give us $4966.25. Thus, after 15 years Naomi will have $4966.25.
1. -2g = 1.75 -4
-g = -2.25/2
g = 1.12
