Answer:
Concentrated Targeting Strategy
Explanation:
Concentrated Targeting Strategy refers to a situation in which an organization focus its marketing efforts on only a specific segment of the market. That is, only one marketing mix is developed.
Concentrated Targeting Strategy allows the producer focus on the needs and wants of a particular segment of the consumers/ population. The producer directs all it's efforts to the satisfaction of a segment of the consumers.
Concentrated Targeting Strategy could be disadvantageous if the demand of the focused segment of consumers is low. Low demand will affect the financial position of an organization.
Answer: $1600
Explanation:
From the information given, it can be noted that while Ryan is vested, on the other hand, Todd isn't vested.
Therefore, since the vacation is for two weeks, the amount of vacation expense and liability should be reported will be for Ryan alone and this will be:
= $800 × 2
= $1600
In this case, service has already been rendered ans there's accumulated rights, therefore a vacation expense and liability of $1600 should be reported.
Answer:
$4,000
Explanation:
Preparation of the journal entry.
Based on the information given we were told that The indirect materials totaled the amount of $4,000 which means that the appropriate journal entry to record this requisition would include a DEBIT TO MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD of the amount of $4,000.
(To record requisition)
Answer:
AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery
No No
The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.
The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.
The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.
For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)
Explanation:
