1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
bezimeni [28]
4 years ago
9

Which is the best explanation of the cannon-bard theory? bodily arousal occurs before emotional response. emotions arise from le

arned triggers. emotion is nothing but a reflexive response based on instincts. bodily arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously?
Social Studies
1 answer:
motikmotik4 years ago
8 0
<span>The answer is "bodily arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously".
</span>
Cannon-Bard Theory pronounces that the experience of feeling does not just depend on substantial sources of info and how the body reacts to stimuli. Both of these happen in the meantime self-sufficiently. Individuals perceive the feelings and all the while experience physiological reactions, for example, sweating, trembling and straining of muscles.
You might be interested in
The united states has an open class system based on social mobility that includes a. horizontal mobility. c. intergenerational m
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

The United States has an open class system based on social mobility that includes all of the above which is option D, meaning that social mobility is quite high, where it is possible to move up and down different social classes.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Map part that shows how much space on the map represents a given distance
zloy xaker [14]
you have to use the key at the bottom to show you what to do
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why did some Iranians oppose the Shah?
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

Constitutionalist, Marxist, and Islamist groups opposed the Shah: ... based inside the city center elegance, this become a section of the populace that become fairly secular and wanted the Shah to stick to the Iranian constitution of 1906 in place of spiritual rule.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why is Delhi agreement called tripartite agreement Nepal<br>​
Vsevolod [243]

Explanation:

The Delhi Agreement was a trilateral agreement signed between India, Pakistan and Bangladesh on 28 August 1973; and ratified only by India and Pakistan.[1] It allowed the repatriation of prisoners of war and interned officials held in the three countries after the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War. The agreement has been criticised for Pakistan's failure to repatriate Urdu-speakers in Bangladesh and not holding to account 195 senior military officials accused of breach of conduct during war.[2]

6 0
4 years ago
What is are the similarities and differences between independent variables and constants?
Sholpan [36]
Free actively maintained . it is mostly important
5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • The seperation of powers was created in constitution to prevent ?
    8·2 answers
  • On a field study in the tropics, you discover a new species of millipede! After careful work to determine the size and range of
    7·1 answer
  • What did Native American and runaway slaves have in common
    6·2 answers
  • Who is the prime minister of Nepal
    13·2 answers
  • What landform is found in the northeast portion of the USA.
    14·1 answer
  • How many names does the “devil’s book” have?
    11·1 answer
  • What is the difference between the two types of experimental research design?​
    5·2 answers
  • I will give you brainliest and 5 star and thanks if its correct
    13·2 answers
  • Smooth peas are dominant over wrinkled peas. If a purebred smooth pea (PP) is crossed with a
    13·2 answers
  • Episodic binge eating followed by purging is a characteristic of what condition?
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!