<span>Outcome Bag of Gold Magic Wand
Relative frequency 0.32 0.68
</span><span>The relative frequency of getting a bag of gold is .......... reasonably close
</span>
.32 is close to 30% so
<span>Alison's claim about the theoretical probability is likely to be 2............true
Further, this means that the theoretical probability of getting a magic wand is most likely 3............1 - 30% = 70%</span>
Step-by-step explanation:
Hey, there!
Here,
Given that:
we need to find factor,
As it is in a^2-b^2 form as per its factor (a+b) (a-b), keeping same formula here,
25x^2 means (5x)^2
and 4 means 2^2
Now, it would be,
Therefore, it's factor would be (5x+2)(5x-2).
<em><u>Hope it helps</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
P(A) = 0.993 is the probability of event A
_
P(A) is the probability of not A (note that I am trying to place a bar over A. I hope you can see it, else it is because the editor did not show it as I intended)
Then, use the fact that the probability of A plus the probability not A is equal to 1:
_
=> P(A) + P(A) = 1
_
=> P(A) = 1 - P(A) = 1 - 0.993 = 0.007
So, the answers are:
_
1) P(A) = 0.07
_
2) Yes, A is unlikely because its probability is very low.
A) 3. This is the base number somebody would win without ever practicing.
B) y = 2x + 3. The slope of the line of best fit, depending on the points you pick, is roughly 2. Thus the answer for 13 would be 29.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given 
To get g(x), we will have to integrate g'(x)
If g(1) = 0, this means at x = 1, g(x) = 0
0 = -1⁻¹ + C
C= 1
Substitute C = 1 into the function
g(x) = -x⁻¹ + 1
If g(2) = 0, this means at x = 2, g(x) = 0
0 = -2⁻¹ + C
C= 2⁻¹
C = 1/2
Substitute C = 2 into the function
g(x) = -x⁻¹ + 1/2
