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denis-greek [22]
3 years ago
13

Can somone help with this please and thank you

Mathematics
2 answers:
zheka24 [161]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, they are equivalent, we know that because if we multiply both the numerator and the denominator of the first fraction by 2, we will get the second one.

\frac{m}{4n} = \frac{m * 2}{4n*2} = \frac{2m}{8n}

Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

they are equivalent just trust me

Step-by-step explanation:

m/4n m*2  and 4n82 = 2m/9n is same as m/4n *2

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