Answer:
it is a ritual
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
42 w^6 y^9
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the following:
3×7×2 w^5 y^7 y^2 w
3 w^5 y^7×7 y^2×2 w = 3 w^(5 + 1) y^(7 + 2)×7×2:
3×7×2 w^(5 + 1) y^(7 + 2)
7 + 2 = 9:
3×7×2 w^(5 + 1) y^9
5 + 1 = 6:
3×7×2 w^6 y^9
3×7 = 21:
21×2 w^6 y^9
21×2 = 42:
Answer: 42 w^6 y^9
Answer:
Jogging 6th time.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have been given that Vicki started jogging the first time she ran she ran 3/16 mile the second time she ran 3/8 mile and the third time she ran 9/16 mile.
We can see that the distance Vicki covers each time forms a arithmetic sequence, where 1st term is 3/16.
We know that an arithmetic sequence is in form , where,
= nth term of sequence,
= 1st term of sequence,
n = Number of terms in sequence,
d = Common difference.
Let us find common difference of our given sequence as:
Since Vicki needs to cover more than 1 mile, so we nth term of sequence should be greater than 1.
Let us solve for n.
We can also write next terms of our sequence as:
Therefore, Vicki will run more than 1 mile when she is jogging for 6th time.
The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.
<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>
It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.
The variance of the distribution is given by:
V(X) = np(1 - p)
In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 8, p = 0.504.
Hence the variance is given by:
V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
#SPJ1