Answer:
current share price = $85.96
Explanation:
Find the PV of each dividend
PV= FV / (1+r)^t
r= required return
t= total duration
PV(D1) = 18 / (1.14)= 15.78947
PV(D2) = 14 / (1.14^2) = 10.77255
PV(D3) = 13 / (1.14^3) = 8.774630
PV(D4) = 7.50 / (1.14^4) = 4.44060
PV(D5 onwards) is a two-step process, first PV of growing perpetuity;
PV(D5 onwards) at yr4 =[7.50*(1+0.04) ] / (0.14-0.04) = 78
second, finding PV today ; PV(D5 onwards) at yr 0 = 78 / (1.14^4) = 46.18226
Add the PVs to get the current share price = $85.96
Answer:
Minimun cost: $2000
Explanation:
We solve for the optimal order size using the
Economic Order Quantity:
<u>Where: </u>
D = annual demand = 2,000 boxes
S= setup cost = ordering cost = $ 100
H= Holding Cost = $10.00
EOQ 200
It should order: 2,000 demand / 200 order size = 10 times
At a cost of 1,000 dollar (100 units x $ 10)
It will face an average inventory of 100 units thus holding cost:
100 units x 10 dollar per unit = 1,000
Total cost: 1,000 + 1,000 = 2,000
Answer:
The correct answer is C) purchase Canadian dollar put options.
Explanation:
A sale option (or put option) gives its holder the right - but not the obligation - to sell an asset at a predetermined price until a specific date. The seller of the option to sell has the obligation to buy the underlying asset if the holder of the option (buyer of the right to sell) decides to exercise his right.
The purchase of put options is used as hedging, when price falls are anticipated in shares that are held, since by means of the purchase of Put the price is established from which money is earned. If the stock falls below that price, the investor earns money. If the share price falls, the profits obtained with the sale option compensate in whole or in part for the loss experienced by said fall.
Losses are limited to the premium (price paid for the purchase of the sale option). Earnings increase as the share price falls in the market.
The direct write off does not report about the bad debt and does not use the allowance where as the allowance method uses the allowance for doubtful accounts because it provides an estimate for the same.
<u>Explanation:</u>
The allowance method speaks to the accumulation and accrual basis of bookkeeping and is the acknowledged technique to record uncollectible records for monetary bookkeeping purposes. The direct write off method is utilized just when we choose a client won't pay.
The allowance method utilizes the stipend for doubtful records to catch amassed assessments of awful obligations. The direct write-off method does not report bad debt estimates; therefore, it does not use the allowance for doubtful accounts when reporting bad debts.
Answer:
Under classified balance sheet, common stock and retained earnings are reported separately
Explanation:
Under equity section of balance sheet, common stock and retained earnings are line items i.e they are reported under equity section of balance sheet separately.
The total of these two should also be separated i.e the total is a line item also. And this forms the total equity provided there are no other line items for the for the period again.
