Answer:
The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Step-by-step explanation:
The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.
Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.
The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.
The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:
Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:
Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Answer:C
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
yes it's equivalent to 2/6
<span>We know that APR means Annual Percentage Rate, so in one year we should pay that rate for the loan amount:
$5,320 * 10.25 % = $5,320 * 10.25/100 = $545.30 per year
Due that Solomon took the loan for 2 years, the finance charge will be:
$545.30 * 2 year = $1,090.60
Rounded to the nearest dollar is: $1,091
That means after two year Solomon will have returned the loan plus the charge:
$5,320 + $1091 = $6,411</span>
The answer is D) C(x) = 160x + 50
The 160 dollars is per course, but the 50 dollars is a one time fee.
