If we let x as the number of years of service in the company and f(x) as the increase in the wage, the step wise function that describes the scenario is
f(x) = { 0.5, x < 3
{ 1.0, 3 ≤ x < 6
{ 1.5, 6 ≤ x < 9
{ 2.0, 9 ≤ x < 12
The point (2, 12) represents the wage increase of x < 12
Hi,
To solve this problem, Let us take the LCM of 10 and 16 which will come 80.
Now suppose the cost price of 10 tables =₹n CP of 80 tables will be ₹ 8n
According to the question, CP of 10 tables is equal to the SP of 16 tables, then
the SP of 16 tables will also be ₹ n.
So, SP of 80 tables will be ₹ 5n
So, Loss = CP-SP
→ 8n - 5n = ₹ 3n
Loss%= (3n×100)/8n
Loss%= 37.5%.
Hence the correct answer will be a <u>loss of 37.5%.</u>
The answer your looking for is 60ft
Step-by-step explanation:
factor 4 out of the variable terms, as this helps.
but my approach is simply to define the target and then calculate "backwards".
we want to find
(ax + b)² = a²x² + 2abx + b²
and now we compare with the original equation :
a²x² = 4x²
a² = 4
a = 2
2abx = 16x
2×2×bx = 16x
4b = 16
b = 4
b² = 16, but we have only 3, so we need to subtract 16-3 = 13 from the completed square.
so, our equation is
(2x + 4)² - 13 = 0
(2x + 4)² = 13
2x + 4 = sqrt(13)
2x = sqrt(13) - 4
x = sqrt(13)/2 - 2