Answer:
purchase A/c. Dr. Rs.11,000
To ABC CO.A/c. Rs.11,000
(being goods purchased in cash)
Answer:
I think it's a income tax
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Answer:
$718,606.4
Explanation:
The first step is to calculate the accumulated depreciation
=$3,050,000×(0.2+0.32+0.192+0.1152)
= $3,050,000×0.8272
= $2,522,960
The accumulated depreciation is then subtracted from the book value in purchase to get the book value on sale
= $3,050,000-$2,522,960
= $527,040
The next step is to subtract the book value on sale from the salvage value
= $527,040-$670,000
= -$142,960
Loss of - $142,960
The tax gain on disposal can be calculated as follows
= -$142,960×34/100
= -$142,960×0.34
= -$48,606.4
Therefore, the after-tax salvage value can be calculated as follows
= salvage value-tax disposal
= $670,000-(-48,606.4)
= $670,000+$48,606.4
= $718,606.4
Hence the aftertax salvage value of the equipment is $718,606.4
Answer:
a. A decrease in expectations with no change in output, real interest rate or the money supply will result in a decrease in the price level. This is because inflation expectation is directly related to the price level. A anticipated decrease in inflation in the future means that suppliers will reduce their prices as they want more of the product to be sold. With a decrease in inflation (in the future), the prices in the future are expected to fall further.
b. An increase in the nominal money supply, with no change in output, real interest rate or inflation expectations will result in an increase in the price level. Mathematically, this can be explained by RHS=LHS in the equation above. If everything on the right hand side (RHS) remains constant, it means the left hand side (LHS) = M/P must also remain constant, that is, an increase in M would lead to an increase in P so that the ration M/P does not change. An economic explanation of the same is that with an increase in money supply ceterus paribus, people would be willing to pay more as their income would increase.