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emmainna [20.7K]
3 years ago
10

Plz help! (will make brainliest!)​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

If x is not equal to zero, then 1/x can be equal to x.

So which is k * 1/x if x =1?

D, because x is the same as 1x, which is equivalent to 1/1 (x).

I may be wrong though please look at other answers and if you have questions then comment

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

So we want to make x the subject of the formula:

a(x-b)=a^2+bx

First, distribute the left side:

a(x)-a(b)=a^2+bx\\ax-ab=a^2+bx

Combine all the terms with x with it on one side. To do this, first subtract bx from both sides. The right side cancels:

(ax-ab)-bx=(a^2+bx)-bx\\ax-ab-bx=a^2

Remove the -ab from the left. Add ab to both sides. The left side cancels:

(ax-ab-bx)+ab=a^2+ab\\ax-bx=a^2+ab

Now, distribute out the x from the left side:

ax-bx=a^2+ab\\x(a-b)=a^2+ab

Divide both sides by (a-b). The left side cancels:

\frac{(x(a-b))}{a-b}=\frac{(a^2+ab)}{a-b}  \\x=\frac{(a^2+ab)}{a-b}

Therefore:

x=\frac{(a^2+ab)}{a-b}

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