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Bezzdna [24]
3 years ago
11

The physical units method of joint cost allocation allocates costs based on a.the estimated selling price of the various finishe

d products minus the costs to sell the products. b.the market values of the various finished products. c.a weight factor multiplied by physical units. d.an objective, quantitative metric such as pounds, square feet, or gallons.
Business
1 answer:
Hatshy [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

d. an objective, quantitative metric such as pounds, square feet, or gallons.

Explanation:

In Accounting, Costing is the measurement of the cost of production of goods and services by assessing the fixed costs and variable costs associated with each step of production. The various type of costs are;

1. Product cost is the expenses incurred when a product is sold.

2. Period cost refers to the period in which costs are incurred.

3. Fixed cost refers to costs that remains constant over variations in production activity, irrespective of amount of goods.

3. Variable cost refers to cost which are the same per unit of production but vary directly with level of output.

4. Direct costs refer to the costs that are peculiar to a particular department or area while indirect cost can't be traced to any.

5. Manufacturing overhead are all indirect cost required in producing a good that isn't associated with direct materials or direct labor.

Generally, the physical units method of joint cost allocation allocates costs based on an objective, quantitative metric such as pounds, square feet, or gallons.

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Last year Stephen purchased 60 pounds of potatoes to feed his family of four when his income was $30,000. This year his income f
leva [86]

Answer:

income elasticity = -0.385

Interpretation:

if income increase then potatoes demand decrease

if income drops, potatoes demand increase.

-40 x -.385 = 15.4 increase

60 x 15.4 = 69.24 ≅ 70

Explanation:

midpoint formula:

\frac{q_2-q_1}{(\frac{q_1+q_2}{2})} \div\frac{p_1-p_2}{(\frac{p_2+p_1}{2})}

q1 60

q2 70

p1 30,000

p2 20,000

\frac{70-60}{\frac{60+70}{2}} \div\frac{20,000-30,000}{\frac{20,000+30,000}{2}}

\frac{10}{\frac{130}{2}} \div\frac{-10,000}{\frac{50,000}{2}}

0.153846154 \div -0.4

income elasticity = -0.385

5 0
3 years ago
Y AM I SO SAD RN I NEED TO TALK TO SOMEONE ???!!!!!
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

Talk to me I am here .

Explanation:

Call or text me

I am like a therapist my mom is a social worker

I have a younger brother

Call me don't say your name my oarebts will kill me

Just say hey Leah Dimas

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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sidewinder, Inc., has sales of $670,000, costs of $337,000, depreciation expense of $82,000, interest expense of $47,000, and a
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

Additions to Retained earnings        $78,040

Explanation:

The additions to the retained earnings of Sidewinder, Inc can be calculated as follows

Sales                                               $670,000

Costs                                              ($337,000)

Depreciation expense                   ($82,000)

Interest expense                            ($47,000)

Profit before tax                              $204,000

[email protected]%                                         ($48,960)

Profit after tax                                  $155,040

Less:Dividends                                ($77,000)

Additions to Retained earnings      $78,040  

4 0
4 years ago
Examples of productivity in economics.
DiKsa [7]

Answer:

The value of output obtained with one unit of input is referred to as economic productivity. For example, if a worker produces two units at a cost of ten dollars each in an hour, his productivity is twenty dollars. :))))

3 0
3 years ago
The company has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity. Bonds pay 10% coupon (semi-annual payout), mature in 20 y
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

Explanation:

Dividend discount model (DDM) is a method of calculating the cost of equity. The formula is as follows;

cost of equity; r = (D1/P0) +g

whereby, D1= next year's dividend

P0 = Current price of the stock = 27

g = the stock's dividend growth rate = 8% or 0.08 as a decimal

D1 = D0 (1+g)

D1 = 2 (1+0.08) = 2.16

Next, plug in the numbers to the formula

r = (2.16/27)+0.08

r = 0.08 + 0.08

r = 0.16 or 16%

<u>Cost of equity using CAPM</u>

CAPM is Capital asset pricing model. It is also used to estimate the cost of equity.

CAPM; r = risk free + beta ( market risk premium)

r = 0.10 +1.2(0.05)

r = 0.10 + 0.06

r = 0.16 or 16%

Therefore, DDM and CAPM give the same cost of equity.

7 0
3 years ago
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