At very minimum, move (4/5)x to the other side of the given equation. Then:
-(4/5)x + y = 0.85. This is the equation in standard form.


- <u>Jan </u><u>purchased </u><u>1</u><u>4</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>shares </u><u>of </u><u>stock </u><u>in </u><u>ABC </u><u>company </u><u>at </u><u>a </u><u>price </u><u>of </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>8</u><u>.</u><u>7</u><u>5</u><u> </u><u>per </u><u>share </u>
- <u>During </u><u>the </u><u>next </u><u>3</u><u> </u><u>days</u><u>, </u><u> </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>share </u><u>declined </u><u>by </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>7</u><u>5</u><u> </u><u>and </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>5</u><u>0</u>

- <u>We </u><u>have </u><u>to </u><u>find </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>a </u><u>share </u><u>of </u><u>ABC </u><u>stock </u><u>at </u><u>the </u><u>end </u><u>of </u><u>3</u><u> </u><u>days </u>

<u>According </u><u>to </u><u>the </u><u>question</u><u>, </u>
Cost of 1 share of ABC company = $18.75
<u>Therefore</u><u>, </u>
Cost of 140 shares purchased by Jan in the ABC company


<u>Now</u><u>, </u>
For next 3 days, the value of share declined


<u>Therefore</u><u>, </u>
The value of shares after 3 days will be



Hence, The value of share after 3 days will be $18.75 .
Answer:
(-4-y) = -6(7 - x)
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm pretty sure the answer is no. A function looks like this: f(x) = mx + c. Let's add another function, f(y) = ny + d. If the x-intercept is the same, we can subtract c and d from their respective equations. f(x) = mx, f(y) = ny. If the domains are the same, then x and y can have the same value, so we divide it out. f(x) = m, f(y) = n. Finally, if the ranges are the same, the value of f(x) = f(y). So by the substitution property, m=n. Since all the variables equal each other, both functions are equal to f(x) = mx+c! Therefore, they can only be the same function.
Answer: No