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Svetlanka [38]
2 years ago
6

1.Here are data on two companies. The T-bill rate is 4% and the market risk premium is 6%.

Business
1 answer:
kenny6666 [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

According to the CAPM model

Fair return = Risk-free rate of return + (Beta × Market Premium)

For $1 discount store:

Expected return = 4% +(1.5 × 6%)

Expected return = 0.04 + (1.5 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.09

Expected return = 0.13

Expected return = 13%

For everything $5

Expected Return = 4% + (1 × 6%)

Expected return =  0.04 + (1 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.06

Expected return = 0.10

Expected return = 10%

2.

From the above calculation;

For $1 discount store:

Since the expected return is greater than the forecasted return at 12%.

Thus, it is overpriced.

For everything $5

Here, it is obvious from the above calculation that the expected return is lesser than the forecasted return at 11%.

Therefore, it is underpriced.

3) Beta can be defined as the security change that takes place due to market functuations. Thus, Beta manages the systematic risk associated with firms. From the information given, Kaskin Inc. has a more systematic risk(beta) than Quinn Inc. Thus, option A is the most accurate.

4)

To first find the growth rate by using CAPM model.

Required return = Risk free return + \beta (market return - risk free return)

Required return = 0.08 + 1(0.18 - 0.08)

Required return = 18%

Using the formula:

Required return = (next year dividend/current price) + growth rate

18% = (9/100) + g

0.18 = 0.09 g

g = 0.09

Growth rate g = 9%

To determine the price at year 1; we have:

= year \ 1 \  dividend \times \dfrac{1+g}{ke-g}

= 9 \times \dfrac{1+0.09}{0.18 - 0.09}

= $109.00

Therefore, the investor can earn a profit of $9 after selling the stock for $109 at the end of the year 1.

5.

According to beta

For portfolio A.

Risk premium per unit = (21 - 8)%/1.3

Risk premium per unit = (0.21 - 0.08)/1.3

Risk premium per unit = 0.1

Risk premium per unit = 10%

For portfolio B.

Risk premium per unit = (17 - 8)%/0.7

Risk premium per unit = (0.17 - 0.08)/0.7

Risk premium per unit = 0.1286

Risk premium per unit = 12.86%

From above, it is clear that the risk associated with portfolio B is lesser compared to portfolio A.

Thus; the correct option is b. A; B

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The manufacturing overhead budget at Pendley Corporation is based on budgeted direct labor-hours. The direct labor budget indica
postnew [5]

Answer:

Correct option is B) $17.10

Total overhead rate per hour = $17.10

Explanation:

Overhead rates are based on cash outflow, they are not allocated and computed based on non cash items.

Total direct labor hours = 8,900

Thus total variable overhead rate = $5.50

Total cash fixed cost = $133,500 - $30,260 = $103,240

Fixed cost overhead rate = $103,240/8,900 = $11.60

Total overhead cost per hour = Variable overhead + Fixed Overhead = $5.50 + $11.60 = $17.10

5 0
3 years ago
What are the three reasons that companies import?
Nataliya [291]
D I think I could be wrong lmk
7 0
2 years ago
What factors , other than tax incentives, should companies evaluate before deciding to invest in a particular country ?
Reptile [31]

Two main risk sources need be considered when investing in a foreign country:

<span><span>
Economic risk: This risk refers to a country's ability to pay back its debts. A country with stable finances and a stronger economy should provide more reliable investments than a country with weaker finances or an unsound economy.
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Political risk: This risk refers to the political decisions made within a country that might result in an unanticipated loss to investors. While economic risk is often referred to as a country's ability to pay back its debts, political risk is sometimes referred to as the willingness of a country to pay debts or maintain a hospitable climate for outside investment. Even if a country's economy is strong, if the political climate is unfriendly (or becomes unfriendly) to outside investors, the country may not be a good candidate for investment.</span></span><span>


I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!</span>
7 0
3 years ago
For the past year, Kayla, Inc., has sales of $44,432, interest expense of $3,074, cost of goods sold of $14,909, selling and adm
ryzh [129]

Answer:

$14,439.8

Explanation:

The computation of operating cash flow is shown below:-

The operating cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT + Depreciation - Income tax expense

where,

EBIT = Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense -  selling and administrative expense

= $44,432 - $14,909 - $4,965 - $10,816

= $13,742

Tax expenses =  ( Earnings before interest and tax - interest expenses ) × tax rate of 40%

= ($13,742 - $3,074) × 40%

= $10,668 × 40%

= $4,267.2

So, the operating cash flow

= $13,742 + $4,965 - $4,267.2

= $14,439.8

7 0
3 years ago
Each general partner in a limited partnership _______. (choose two correct answers)
Natalija [7]

Each general partner in a limited partnership has personal liability

<h3>What is personal liability?</h3>

Personal liability insurance, often known as "comprehensive personal liability (CPL) insurance," is a part of a homeowners insurance or umbrella insurance policy that guards you and members of your household against claims stemming from injuries and damage to other people's property. It protects you from having to pay hefty sums out of pocket if you are found to be accountable for something bad that occurs to a third party.

Your personal liability insurance protects you from lawsuits stemming from injury to others and property damage.

Personal liability insurance is available independently, even though it is frequently included in a homes policy.

To learn more about personal liability from the given link:

brainly.com/question/16059229

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
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