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Vikentia [17]
2 years ago
14

A new bank customer with ​$4,000 wants to open a money market account. The bank is offering a simple interest rate of 1.2​%.

Mathematics
2 answers:
melisa1 [442]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is 1,440 (sorry if it's wrong)

Explanation:  

You multiply 4,000 by 1.8% which u will get 72 then multiply 72 by 20 and then that will get you 1,440.

Credit: brainly.com/question/21029884

Charra [1.4K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Interest: $1440

Total Account Balance: $5440

Step-by-step explanation:

First, converting R percent to r a decimal

r = R/100 = 1.2%/100 = 0.012 per year,

then, solving our equation

I = 4000 × 0.012 × 30 = 1440

I = $ 1,440.00

The simple interest accumulated

on a principal of $ 4,000.00

at a rate of 1.2% per year

for 30 years is $ 1,440.00.

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A. 2b + 8 - 5b + 3 = -13 + 8b – 5
MrRa [10]
Solution
-3b + 11 = -18 + 8b
-3b - 8b = -18 - 11
-11b = -29
b = 29/11
8 0
3 years ago
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Which expression is equivalent to the expression -3 (4r - 2) -2r?
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

-14r + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

-12r + 6 - 2r

3 0
2 years ago
If log2 5 = k, determine an expression for log32 5 in terms of k.
lukranit [14]

Answer:

log_3_2(5)=\frac{1}{5} k

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start by using change of base property:

log_b(x)=\frac{log_a(x)}{log_a(b)}

So, for log_2(5)

log_2(5)=k=\frac{log(5)}{log(2)}\hspace{10}(1)

Now, using change of base for log_3_2(5)

log_3_2(5)=\frac{log(5)}{log(32)}

You can express 32 as:

2^5

Using reduction of power property:

log_z(x^y)=ylog_z(x)

log(32)=log(2^5)=5log(2)

Therefore:

log_3_2(5)=\frac{log(5)}{5*log(2)}=\frac{1}{5} \frac{log(5)}{log(2)}\hspace{10}(2)

As you can see the only difference between (1) and (2) is the coefficient \frac{1}{5} :

So:

\frac{log(5)}{log(2)} =k\\

log_3_2(5)=\frac{1}{5} \frac{log(5)}{log(2)} =\frac{1}{5} k

6 0
2 years ago
Simplify the following expression using the commutative and associative properties (combining like terms);
Tasya [4]

Answer:

the answer will be

2x-5

6 0
3 years ago
A rhombus has four 6-inch sides and two 120-degree angles. From one of the vertices of the obtuse angles, the two latitudes are
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

Area(A)=Area(C)= 9 in^{2}

Area(B)=13.2 in^{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

We begin with finding the angles a and b that from the drawing attached you can see that a=b.

Now, the sum of the internal angles of a rhomboid is equal to 360 degrees, with that we have:

120+120+a+b=360

240+2a=360

2a=120

a=60=b

Next, in the image you can see that the lines coming from the angle at the top 120 degrees vertex, divide the opposite sides by half, thus making two triangles with one side of 6 in and another of 3 in.

We can say from the drawing as well:

Area(A)+Area(B)+Area(C)=Area(rhomboid)

But, we can also say that Area(A)=Area(C)

So, starting with Area(A)

Area(A)=Area(triangle)=\frac{b*h}{2}=\frac{6*3}{2}=9 in^{2}

We can then calculate the area B, a rhomboid, or better, take the Total area of the figure and subtract the area of the two triangles.

Area(B)=Area(rhomboid)-Area(A)-Area(C)

Area(rhomboid)=b*h where b=6in and h is the perpendicular distance from the base to the top.

h=[tex]6*cos(30)=5.20in   The 30 degrees come from: 120-30-60=30, since the latitudes split the 120 angle in two equal parts and one that is the half of the obtuse angle.

Area(rhomboid)=5.20*6=31.2 in^{2}

Area(B)=Area(rhomboid)-Area(A)-Area(C)=31.2 in^{2}-9 in^{2}-9 in^{2}=13.2 in^{2}

3 0
3 years ago
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