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joja [24]
3 years ago
12

C= 5/9(F-32)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
5 0
D hope this helps you
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HELP I WILL MARK YOU AS A BRAINLIEST!!
Hoochie [10]

Answer:He averaged about 3 miles per day. Hope this helped ya have a nice day

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
A cube box has a side length of 7 feet . what is the total surface area of the mix?
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

294

Step-by-step explanation:

SA   = 6x^{2}

       = 6 (7^{2} )

294  =  6 (49)

5 0
3 years ago
Compare factoring by grouping to factoring out the greatest common factor.
Blababa [14]

Answer:

(3x + 10)(2x + 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor by grouping: 6x2 + 3x + 20x + 10.

This is a polynomial written with four terms that don't have a single common factor among them. However, the first two terms have a common factor (3x), and the last two terms have a common factor (10). This situation doesn't answer all of our wildest factoring dreams, but we'll take it.

By pulling out the common factors for each pair of terms, we can rewrite the original polynomial like this:

3x(2x + 1) + 10(2x + 1)

These two terms now have a common factor of (2x + 1). Seems like we should be able to do something with that information, don't you think? In fact, we can pull out this common factor and rewrite the polynomial again:(3x + 10)(2x + 1)

7 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 6 red and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the drawn is white?
wel

If it's three or more, the probability is 100%.

However, I will assume that you intend to draw only two balls and that you don't replace the first ball in the bag for the second draw.

So you draw one ball. The probability that it's red is 8/14 = 4/7.

You draw again. The probability of getting a second red is 7 (red balls remains) / 13 (balls remaining).

Assuming that the results of the first and second draws are independent,the probability of drawing two red balls is therefore (4/7)*(7/13) = 4/13.

Now, suppose instead of a red on the first draw you got white. The probability of this is 6/14 = 3/7.

Given the first ball is white, the probability of drawing a second white is 5/13.

So the probability of drawing two whites is (3/7)*(5/13) = 15/91.

The outcomes of drawing two reds or two whites are independent of each other, so you can add the probabilities to get the probability of drawing two balls of the same colour, i.e.

4/13 + 15/91 = 43/91

If you prefer to express it as a percentage, it's approximately 47.25%.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(08.07 HC)
katovenus [111]

Answer:

Below in bold.

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

At the x-intercepts  f(x) = 0, therefore:

2x^2 - 3x - 5 = 0

(2x - 5)(x + 1) = 0

x = 5/2, -1)

So the x intercepts are (-1, 0) and (5/2, 0).

Part B

The Coefficient  of x^2 is positive ( it is 2) So the graph opens upwards and the vertex will be a minimum.

Convert f(x) to vertex form, by completing the square:

f(x) = 2x^2 - 3x - 5

= 2(x^2 - 3/2x) - 5

= 2[(x - 3/4)^2 - 9/16] - 5

= 2(x - 3/4)^2 -18/16 - 80/16

= 2(x - 3/4)^2 - 49/8

So the coordinates of the vertex are

(3/4, -49/8)  or

(0.75, -6.125) in decimal form.

Part C

To graph f(x) you would first mark the points on the x axis which we found in Part 1 and the vertex found in Part 2. This vertex will be the bottom of the 'U'.

The graph is a parabola shaped roughly like a U, and will be symmetrical about the line x = 0.75 (which passes through the vertex).

You would also plot 2 more points above the x axis so as to get an accurate graph. 1 would be to the left of the line of symmetry and 1 to its right.

Suggest   x = - 2  and calculate f(-2) = 2(-2)^2 - 3(-2) - 5 =  11.

- that is the point (-2,11) and the other would be  x = 4,  f(x) = 15. (4, 15)

Once you have plotted these points draw a smooth u shaped curve through them.

3 0
2 years ago
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