Answer:
Part A
Cost of Goods Sold reported in the company's year-end income statement is $11000000
Part B
Merchandise Inventory reported in the company's year-end balance sheet is $84000000
Part C
The balance of the Cost of Goods Sold account Immediately prior to recording inventory shrinkage is $ 10000000
The balance of the Merchandise Inventory account Immediately prior to recording inventory shrinkage is $85000000
Explanation:
Cost of Goods Sold
Ranns Supply use the perpetual inventory system. This means that cost of goods sold is calculated after every sale agreement.
In this case Cost of Sales figure reported at company`s year end can be calculated using missing figure approach in the Income Statement
Calculation of the Cost of Sales figure is as follows:
Net Sales $2600000 - Gross Profit $15000000 = $1100000
Merchandise
The merchandise account records assets of inventory in hand during the year.
The Merchandise used during the year should match with the cost of sales figure.But if the figure is lower than the cost of sales figure, then inventory was written down to its replacement value in terms of IAS 2.
Calculation of Merchandise in Hand is as follows:
Purchase of Merchandise $9500000 - Shrinkage During the year $10000000 - Write down of Inventory $1000000 = $ 84000000
What information did the employee provide on the w4?
Answer:
C. In a pure fixed cost structure, the unit selling price and unit contribution margin are equal.
Explanation:
In Accounting, cost behavior is an indication of how costs in a firm reacts to change in activity levels. There are basically three types of cost behavior; fixed costs, variable costs and semi-variable costs.
The relationship between cost behavior and profits are;
- A pure fixed cost structure offers more security if volume expectations are not achieved.
- In a pure variable cost structure, when revenue increases by $1, so do profits.
- A pure variable cost structure offers higher potential rewards.
Answer:
The answer is 6.72%
Explanation:
Calculating the imputed rate from a discount bond as follows:
( 1 + i )^n = FV / PV
( 1 + i )^3 = FV / PV, here FV= 1000 and PV= 727.25
so putting values in equation we have:
( 1 +i )^3 = 1000 / 727.25
( 1 + i )^3 = 1.375
solving for i
( 1 + i) = 1.375^1/3
( 1 + i ) = 1.112
i = 0.112 before tax rate
0.112 * (1 - tax rate) = after tax interest rate
0.112 * .60 = 0.0672 = 6.72%
thus the expected after tax cost of this debt issue is 6.72%
