A has fixed one time fee of $12 and if you go to it say "m" months you pay $28 for each month, so your total cost at A is really 12 + 28m.
B has a fixed one time fee of $20 and if you go to it "m" months you pay $26 for each month, so you total cost at B is 20 + 26m.
how many months for the cost to be the same?
well, since the cost for both is the same, we can just get A's, knowing that B is the same
Your answer would be 176.25%
Step-by-step explanation:
davis is right.
A binomial experiment is an experiment which satisfies these four conditions. A fixed number of trials. Each trial is independent of the others. There are only two outcomes. The probability of each outcome remains constant from trial to trial.
The equation is y=x+1
Here's an explanation:
The equation starts out with y since that's what we're told to do. Since the even costs $1, then the total cost would be the total number of attendees +1. The variable for attendees is x, and since the additional cost is $1 per attendee, you don't have to multiply x with anything. So, the answer would be y=x+1. (Everything's in dollars)
