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pychu [463]
3 years ago
6

I’m bored so give me some good jokes or memes and whatever is funniest i’ll mark brainlirest:))

Mathematics
2 answers:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
7 0
Knock knock answer plz
Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

hehehehe

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A survey report states that 70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years. If 20
irakobra [83]

Answer:

a) 0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

b) 0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years, or they do not. The probability of a woman visiting their doctor at least once in this period is independent of any other women. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years.

This means that p = 0.7

20 adult women

This means that n = 20

(a) Fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

This is:

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14)

In which

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 14) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{14}.(0.3)^{6} = 0.1916

P(X = 15) = C_{20,15}.(0.7)^{15}.(0.3)^{5} = 0.1789

P(X = 16) = C_{20,16}.(0.7)^{16}.(0.3)^{4} = 0.1304

P(X = 17) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{17}.(0.3)^{3} = 0.0716

P(X = 18) = C_{20,18}.(0.7)^{18}.(0.3)^{2} = 0.0278

P(X = 19) = C_{20,19}.(0.7)^{19}.(0.3)^{1} = 0.0068

P(X = 20) = C_{20,20}.(0.7)^{20}.(0.3)^{0} = 0.0008

So

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.1916 + 0.1789 + 0.1304 + 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.6079

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14) = 1 - 0.6079 = 0.3921

0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

(b) At least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

From the values found in item (a).

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.107

0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

6 0
2 years ago
You invested money in two funds. Last year, the first fund paid a dividend of 9% and the second a dividend of 3%, and you receiv
Elden [556K]
If the amount of money you invested in the first fund is x and the second fund y, then 9% (or 0.09 by moving the decimal 2 spots)*x+0.03*y=1047 since the first fund paid 9% and the second 3%. In addition, for this year, we get 
0.1*x+0.01*y=811. 
We also have 0.09*x+0.03*y=1047, so we can multiply the top equation by -3 and add it to the second to get -0.21x=-1386. Dividing both sides by -0.21, we get x=6600. In addition, since 0.1*x+0.01*y=811, we can plug 6600 in for x to get 660+0.01*y=811 and by subtracting 660 from both sides we get 0.01*y=151. Multiplying both sides by 100 (since 0.01*100=1), we get y=15100
6 0
3 years ago
14 divided by 2/7 how do I divide it and what is the anwer?
Anika [276]
Dividing by a fraction is like multiplying with the inverse.

So 14 / (2/7) is the same as 14 * 7/2, which is 49
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need some help with this math question
Vilka [71]
The answer is 63 cm bc 30 60 90 triangles have a rule where the short leg is x longer is x√3 and the hypotenuse is x2
you can see this if you imagine the triangle as equilateral then cutting it in half
6 0
3 years ago
Math linear functions
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

60x-80

Step-by-step explanation:

per hour is x and the fee is negative 80

5 0
3 years ago
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