Factory overhead variances should be broken out into their individual components and reported separately as either debits or credits to their individual variance accounts should factory overhead variances be treated in a journal entry to apply factory overhead
Credit is generally defined as an agreement between a lender and a borrower. Credit also refers to the creditworthiness or credit history of an individual or entity. In accounting, loans can reduce assets or increase liabilities, and can reduce expenses or increase income.
One credit is equivalent to a 30-second voice message. A voice message can be recorded for up to 120 seconds. The longer the voice message, the more credit you will get for shipping per phone number. 1-30 seconds = 1 credit per phone number.
An example of credit is a celebration for graduating from medical school while working two jobs. Examples of loans are amounts that are available in a bank account or credited to a checking account. An example of credits is the number of English courses required for a degree.
Learn more about credits here
brainly.com/question/13375913
#SPJ4
Answer:
The remaining useful life of the asset is = 10 - 3 = 7 years
Explanation:
The straight line method of depreciation charges a constant depreciation expense through out the useful life of the asset. The formula for depreciation expense under this method is,
Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated useful life of the asset
Plugging in the values for depreciation expense per year, cost and salvage value, we can calculate the total expected life of the asset.
5000 = (53000 - 3000) / estimated useful life of the asset
estimated useful life of the asset = 50000 / 5000
estimated useful life of the asset = 10 years
As the accumulated depreciation balance is of 15000, the depreciation for 15000/5000 = 3years has been charged.
The remaining useful life of the asset is = 10 - 3 = 7 years
The answer to this question is "Fixed Cost." this is because it doesn't change so it's fixed on one price!
Answer and Explanation:
a)
If you charge $40 for X then everyone will buy as everyone is willing to pay atleast $40. this means all three groups buy that is 3*1000 buyers.So profit from X = 3000*40= $120,000
And since everyone is willing to willing to pay atleast $60 for Y again all three groups will buy so profit from Y =3000*60=$180,000
profits=$300,000
b)
If you charge $90 and $160 for X and Y respectively you will have only 1000 buyers for each product as others are unwilling to pay this much.
So profits = 1000*90 + 1000*160=$250,000
c)
for a bundle of X and Y buyers are willing to pay a total of $150, $210 and $200 across the three categories.
So everyone will buy a bundle of 1 X and 1 Y.
profits = 150*3000= $450,000
d)
If you charge $210 only the second will buy as they are willing to pay that much so profits =1000*210=$210,000
Also by selling X at $90 group 1 will buy X; profits=1000*90=$90,000
and by selling Y at $160 group 3 will buy Y; profits=1000*160=$160,000
total profits =$460,000
