Although monopolies are not allowed in the United States, the government does understand that in certain situations it doesn't

The Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) wanted to foreclose on the house and sell it to recover the balance due.

Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

Fannie Mae would argue that "to the order of" is a complete order instrument that needs endorsement and can be enforced. "Pay to the order of" are negotiable instruments that must be paid via endorsement and delivery.

Explanation:

The Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) wanted to foreclose on the house and sell it to recover the balance due. Smith argued that the words "to the order of " in the endorsement made the note an incomplete order instrument and that Fannie Mae could not enforce it. What is Fannie Mae's best response to this argument

Smith argued, among other things, that the indorsement on the note rendered it incomplete and "insufficient to support the use of executory process and,the words "to the order of [blank]" included in the subject indorsement made the instrument incomplete order paper, not bearer paper, and thus Fannie Mae could not properly enforce the note.However,Fannie Mae would argue that "to the order of" is a complete order instrument that needs endorsement and can be enforced. "Pay to the order of" are negotiable instruments that must be paid via endorsement and delivery.

4 0

4 years ago

Between April 2011 and April 2016, the price of a U.S. postage stamp increased from $0.41 to $0.46. The price of a U.S. postage

koban [17]

Answer:

The price of a U.S. postage stamp has increased approximately 63% in terms of Indian rupees and 10% in terms of Chinese yuan.

Explanation:

the exchange rate between the US dollar and the Indian rupee:

April 2011 = 45.54 Indian rupees per dollar x $0.41 = 18.67 Indian rupees

April 2016 = 66.16 Indian rupees per dollar x $0.46 = 30.43 Indian rupees

change in Indian rupees = (30.43 - 18.67) / 18.67 = 63%

the exchange rate between the US dollar and the Chinese yuan:

April 2011 = 6.61 Chinese yuan per dollar x $0.41 = 2.71 Chinese yuan

April 2016 = 6.48 Chinese yuan per dollar x $0.46 = 2.98 Chinese yuan

change in Chinese yuan = (2.98 - 2.71) / 2.71 = 10%

8 0

3 years ago

Jamison Company has the following obligations at December 31: For each obligation, indicate whether it should be classified as a

Rashid [163]

Answer:

Explanation:

The current liability is that liability in which the obligation is arise for one year or less than one year.

So, the categorization is shown below:

a. A note payable for $100,000 due in 2 years. = It is not a current liability as it is due in 2 years that come under the long term liability

b. A 10-year mortgage payable of $300,000 payable in ten $30,000 annual payments. = Current liability for first annual payment only and rest is consider to be long term liability

c. Interest payable of $15,000 on the mortgage. = Current liability as it is arise within one year

d. Accounts payable of $60,000. = Current liability as it is arise within one year

The current liability is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

7 0

3 years ago

Which type of promotion do many people consider more credible because it is less biased?

steposvetlana [31]

I believe it's Press Release.

7 0

4 years ago

Manufacturing overhead was estimated to be $400,000 for the year along with 20,000 direct labon hours. Actual manufacturing over

Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

If overhead was overapplied, then the COGS should be debited overhead.

The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 400,000 / 20,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $20 per DLH

Now, we allocate overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 20*21,000

Allocated MOH= $420,000

Finally, the over/under allocation:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 415,000 - 420,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

If overhead was overapplied, then the COGS should be debited overhead.

3 0

3 years ago