Answer:
Journal entry to record depletion expense
Depreciation expense $280,000 (debit)
Accumulated depreciation $280,000 (credit)
Explanation:
The coal mine is an economic resource controlled (ownership of risks and benefits) by Last year, Mountain Top, Inc as a result of past event (purchase transaction) from which economic benefits are expected to flow into the business (cash from sale of minerals).Therefore the coal mine is an asset!
The asset is being depleted as it is being used. This is called depreciation.
Depreciation expense in this case is calculated as :
Depreciable Account × Current harvest as a percentage of total estimated tons available
(900000-100000)× 70000/200000 = $280,000
Political, economic, social and technological
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Unitary variable expenses= $ 0.80
Selling price per unit= $ 1.60
First, we need to calculate the unitary contribution margin:
Unitary contribution margin= selling price - unitary variable cost
Unitary contribution margin= 1.6 - 0.8
Unitary contribution margin= $0.8
Now, the contribution margin ratio:
contribution margin ratio= contribution margin / sellig price
contribution margin ratio= 0.8/1.6
contribution margin ratio= 0.5
<u>Answer:</u>
<em>(A) Principle of Supply and Demand
</em>
<u>Explanation:</u>
In economic theory, the law of the organic market is viewed as one of the significant standards administering an economy. It is depicted as the state though supply expands the cost will in general drop or increase, and as request builds, the price will in general increment or the other way around. The increase in demand is equivalent to moving the blue line to one side. A model would be twice the same number of clients needing to purchase the item because of good verbal exchange and promoting.
Answer:
The IRR is 5%. Rate of return would be 12.5% assuming a discount rate of 4%
Explanation:
The answer depends entirely on the discount rate. The question covers a 30 period timeframe and in each period, the pay off is $13 million. This is a simple time value of money concept in which to calculate the present value, you will simply calculate the present value of each of the cash flows. The formula is 13Mn/[(1+r)^n] where n is the year from 1 to 30, r is the discount rate.
The question requires us to calculate the return that is the variable 'r'. For this you need to have the present value today so that you can then use the equation to solve for 'r'. However, the only information we have is the time period and the cash flow. We are given $200mn as the initial outlay. So, we can at least use this to calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) which is simply the rate of return (or the value of 'r') at which the present value of each of the 13 Mn to be received over the next 30 years is equal to the initial outlay (i.e 200mn). In short, IRR is the rate of return at which the net present value (NPV) is equal to zero. In our example, and using the formula for each of the cash flow from years 1 to 30, the IRR is computated at 5%. So if the discount rate that the company uses is less than 5%, the company would be better of with Joe accepting the offer because any discount rate below 5% would result in the present value of the cash flows to be in excess of $200Mn.
Lets take an example and assume that the discount rate is 4%, using the formula from year 1 to 30 and summing the values would give us a present value of $225 Mn. So the rate lf return in this case would be (225-200)/200 x 100 = 12.5%.
