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Thepotemich [5.8K]
3 years ago
10

A company must repay the bank a single payment of $20,000 cash in 3 years for a loan it entered into. The loan is at 8% interest

compounded annually. The present value of 1 (single sum) at 8% for 3 years is 0.7938. The present value of an annuity (series of payments) at 8% for 3 years is 2.5771. The present value of the loan (rounded) is: Multiple Choice $15,876. $20,000. $25,195. $7,761. $51,542.
Business
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Present Value of the loan = $19999.36 rounded off to $20000

Explanation:

The present value of loan will comprise of the present value of the principal amount of loan plus the present value of the interest that the loan will charge for the 3 year time period for which it is outstanding. As the interest payments are fixed and occur after equal intervals of time, they are considered an annuity.

To calculate the present value of the loan, we must discount the interest payments using the present value factor of annuity given in the question as 2.5771 and we must discount the principal to present value using the present value factor given in question as 0.7938.

We will first calculate the annual interest payment on loan.

Annual Interest payment = 20000 * 0.08 = 1600

Present value of the Interest payment - annuity = 1600 * 2.5771

Present value of the Interest payment - annuity = $4123.36

Present value of the Principal loan = 20000 * 0.7938

Present value of the Principal loan = $15876

Present Value of the loan = 15876 + 4123.36

Present Value of the loan = $19999.36 rounded off to $20000

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Flounder Inc. issues 500 shares of $10 par value common stock and 100 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for a lump sum of
ipn [44]

Answer:

a.

Journal Entries

Dr. Cash ___________________$104,000

Cr. Common Stock ___________$5,000

Cr. Preferred stock ___________$10,000

Cr. Paid in capital Common Stock $78,200

Cr. Paid in capital Preferred stock $10,800

b.

Dr. Cash ___________________$104,000

Cr. Common Stock ___________$5,000

Cr. Preferred stock ___________$10,000

Cr. Paid in capital Common Stock $84,000

Cr. Paid in capital Preferred stock $5,000

Explanation:

a.

First, we need to calculate the fair value of each type of shares using the following formula

Fair value  = Numbers of shares x Fair value per share

Fair Value of Common Share = 500 shares x $164 per share = $82,000

Fair value of preferred share = 100 shares x $205 per share = $20,500

Total value of shares = $82,000 + $20,500 = $102,500

Now allocate the Value of $104,000 bases on the fair value

Allocation to

Common stock = $104,000 x $82,000 / $102,500 = $83,200

Preferred stock = $104,000 x $20,500 / $102,500 = $20,800

Now calculate the par values

Par Values

Common stock = 500 shares x $10 = $5,000

Preferred stock = 100 shares x $100 = $10,000

Now calculate the additional paid-in capital

Additional paid-in capital

Common stock = $83,200 - $5,000 = $78,200

Preferred stock = $20,800 - $10,000 = $10,800

b,

Value of common stock = $178 per share x 500 shares = $89,000

Additional paid in capital

Common stock = $89,000 - $5,000 = $84,000

Preferred stock = $104,000 - $89,000 - $10,000 = $10,000

6 0
2 years ago
Research indicates that 17 percent of consumers recognize the Flatfeet brand of athletic wear. If there are 30,000 consumers in
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

5,100 Consumers

Explanation:

The 17% of the total consumer recognize Flatfeet brand which means:

Consumers who recognize Flatfeet = Total Consumers * percentage of people that recognize the brand

Here

Total consumers are 30,000

And

Percentage of people that recognize the brand is 17%

By putting values, we have:

Consumers who recognize Flatfeet Brand = 30,000 * 17%

Consumers who recognize Flatfeet Brand = 5,100 Consumers

3 0
3 years ago
On October 1, 2014, Mann Company places a new asset into service. The cost of the asset is $80,000 with an estimated 5-year life
Lelu [443]

Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

On October 1, 2014, Mann Company places a new asset into service. The cost of the asset is $80,000 with an estimated 5-year life and $20,000 salvage value at the end of its useful life.

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= 60,000/5=12,000

3 months depreciation= 12,000/12*3= 3,000

3 0
3 years ago
The distribution of a percentage of a firm's profits among its employees is called?
igomit [66]

Employee Benefit refers to the division of a company's profits among its workers.

Employee perks, also known as fringe benefits, perquisites, or perks, refer to various forms of non-wage remuneration given to employees in addition to their regular earnings or salaries. Employee perks, particularly in British English, also refer to rewards in kind.

Salary packaging or salary exchange arrangements are situations where an employee trades in (cash) compensation for another type of perk. The majority of employee benefits are at least partially taxable in most nations. Housing (provided by the employer or paid for by the employer), furnished or not, with or without utilities free, group insurance (health, dental, life, etc.), disability income protection, retirement benefits, daycare, tuition reimbursement, sick leave, and paid vacation are some examples of these benefits.

Learn more about Employee Benefit here.

brainly.com/question/28163981

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Burton Corp. is growing quickly. Dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 28 percent for the next three years, with the growt
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

current share price = $70.53

Explanation:

Share Price:

A share price is the amount it would cost to buy one share in a company.

Formula:

share price = future dividends * Present value of discount factor(16%, time period)

As the company just paid a dividend of $3.45 and dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 28 percent for the next three years so

Dividend for 1st year = (3.45*1.28) = $4.416

Dividend for 2nd year = (4.416*1.28) = $5.65248

Dividend for 3rd year = (5.65248*1.28) = $7.2351744

Now we need to calculate the value for 3rd year.

Formula:

Value after 3rd year = (Dividend for year 3*growth rate) / (required rate-growth rate)

Therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

Value after 3rd year = (7.2351744 * 1.074) / (0.16 - 0.074)

Value after 3rd year = $90.35555007

Therefore by putting the values in the share price formula, we get

current share price = 4.416 / 1.16 + 5.65248 / 1.16^2 + 7.2351744/1.16^3 + 90.35555007 / 1.16^3

current share price = $70.53

4 0
3 years ago
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