Draw a graph with those points. then draw a vertical line through the graph. if the line passes through twice then it’s not a function if it only passes through once it’s a function.
Using the binomial distribution, there is a 0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
For each box, there are only two possible outcomes, either it has a prize, or it does not. The probability of a box having a prize is independent of any other box, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- She buys 5 boxes, hence

- 1 in 4 boxes has a prize, hence

The probability is:

Hence:



Then

0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
10, 50 because they add up to 60 and they have a difference of 40
Answer:
$126
Step-by-step explanation:
since they divided it evenly therefore everyone paid $42 you just times that by the amount of people. there is tom, mary and sara therefore 3. 42*3=126
Steps to solve:
-10.9p + 3.9 = -9.18
~Subtract 3.9 to both sides
-10.9p = -13.08
~Divide -10/9 to both sides
p = 13.08/10.9
p = 1 1/5
Best of Luck!