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Musya8 [376]
3 years ago
13

Consider a triangle ABC like the one below. Suppose that A = 27°, C = 78°, and b = 66. (The figure is not drawn to scale.) Solve

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sauron [17]3 years ago
8 0

We don't get to see the figure but we don't need it.

The remaining angle B is

B = 180 - 27 - 78 = 75°

The Law of Sines gives the remaining sides

\dfrac{a}{\sin A} =\dfrac{b}{\sin B}=\dfrac{c}{\sin C}

a = \dfrac{b \sin A}{\sin B} = \dfrac{66 \sin 27}{sin 75} \approx 31.0203

c = \dfrac{b \sin C}{\sin B} = \dfrac{66 \sin 78}{sin 75} \approx 66.8350

Answer: B=75°, a=31.0, c=66.8

No need for "or" on this one.  That happens when we know the sine of an angle so there are two possibilities for the angle, an acute one and an obtuse one that's supplementary.

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What is this plz help me idk
dalvyx [7]
Draw a graph with those points. then draw a vertical line through the graph. if the line passes through twice then it’s not a function if it only passes through once it’s a function.
6 0
3 years ago
Aja's favorite cereal is running a promotion that says 111-in-444 boxes of the cereal contain a prize. Suppose that Aja is going
Bond [772]

Using the binomial distribution, there is a 0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.

For each box, there are only two possible outcomes, either it has a prize, or it does not. The probability of a box having a prize is independent of any other box, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • She buys 5 boxes, hence n = 5
  • 1 in 4 boxes has a prize, hence p = \frac{1}{4} = 0.25

The probability is:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

Hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{5,0}.(0.25)^{0}.(0.75)^{5} = 0.2373

P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.25)^{1}.(0.75)^{4} = 0.3955

Then

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.2373 + 0.3955 = 0.6328

0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

6 0
2 years ago
The sum of two numbers is 60. Their difference is 40. Which are the numbers? ​
Rudik [331]
10, 50 because they add up to 60 and they have a difference of 40
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
After eating at the restaurant, Tom, Mary, and
ELEN [110]

Answer:

$126

Step-by-step explanation:

since they divided it evenly therefore everyone paid $42 you just times that by the amount of people. there is tom, mary and sara therefore 3. 42*3=126

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-10.9p + 3.9 = -9.18
Debora [2.8K]

Steps to solve:

-10.9p + 3.9 = -9.18

~Subtract 3.9 to both sides

-10.9p =  -13.08

~Divide -10/9 to both sides

p = 13.08/10.9

p = 1 1/5

Best of Luck!

5 0
3 years ago
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