<span>Britain, France and the United States extend democratic rights during the 1800's and early 1900's by reforms to voting.</span>
Please explain it better so I could understand!!??
<span>Certainly not. The United States has never, since its founding, consisted of a small number of citizens, still less of citizens that could practically assemble in one place at one time and debate their actions. A pure democracy in this classical Greek city-state sense was never practical, and was not seriously considered.
What the Framers created was a constitutional representative republic. Sovereignty is vested in the people, like a democracy (and unlike a constitutional monarchy), but the people do not rule directly. Instead, they elect representatives, at regular intervals, and these rule in the peoples' stead. Their powers are limited, first, by the fact that they are elected for only short terms, and must be re-elected if they wish to continue in power, and secondly, and much more importantly, by the Constitution itself, which puts express written limits on their powers even between elections.</span>
Answer:
D
Explanation:
If the amount of slaves that Western Africa had expanded, then their economy would expand because they would have more workers to build building and railroads ext.
Identity, assimilation, tribal sovereignty, revitalizing native culture. There are more but I hope these help
