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anygoal [31]
3 years ago
12

81) When a seller advertises an item at a low price but once in store pushes a similar item at a higher price, the seller is par

ticipating in: A) price fixing B) price discrimination C) psychological pricing D) predatory pricing E) bait and switch.
Business
1 answer:
storchak [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

E) bait and switch

Explanation:

BAIT AND SWITCH can be defined as a way in which a seller use advert of a low price to deceive and attract customers to their shop in which the products or item advert by seller is not available in order to sell similar or separate product to the customer at a higher price instead of selling the same product with a low price advertised by the seller.

Example a seller may advert a quality Italian shoe with a low price of $50 in order to deceive a buyer or customers to their place of business by then selling a similar product of shoe that looks like the one advertise by them to the customer at a higher price of $300.

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On August 1, 2021, Turner Manufacturing lends cash and accepts a $16,000 note receivable that offers 10% interest and is due in
professor190 [17]

Answer:

31 Dec 2021  Interest Expense              $667 Dr

                           Interest Payable                 $667 Cr

Explanation:

The bond will pay the interest at maturity. However, following the accrual basis of accounting requires to match the revenue and expenses for a period and requires such transactions to be recorded in their respective periods. The year end adjusting entry will be made on 31 December 2021.

The interest expense for the period from August to December, 5 months, will be recorded on 31 December 2021 as interest expense and credit to interest payable.

The interest expense is = 16000 * 0.1 * 5/12  =  $666.67 rounded off to $667

3 0
3 years ago
Whispering Winds Corp. compiled the following financial information as of December 31, 2022: Service revenue $836000 Common stoc
lawyer [7]

Answer:

$580,000

Explanation:

The computation of the asset is shown below:

= Equipment + supplies + cash + account receivable

= $244,000 + $30,000 + $215,000 + $91,000

= $580,000

We simply added the four items so that the asset value could be determined

Hence, the asset is $580,000

5 0
3 years ago
Siebel Incorporated, a non-publicly traded company, has 2009 after-tax earnings of $25 million, which are expected to grow at 6
Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

Answer of each requirement is given seperatly below.

a What is the value of Siebel using the DCF method?

Value under DCF = CF * (1+growth rate)/ (WAAC" -Growth rate)

Putting values (assuming after tax earning is all in cash)

Value of SI = 25 (1+6%)/ 20%-6% = 189 million dollars

 

"WAAC calculation

Here WAAC is equal to cost of equity (ke) as company is debt free.

so

Ke = risk free rate + beta (risk premium)

    = 5 + 2.5 (6) = 20%

b What is the value using the comparable recent transactions method?

Based on recent tansaction the value of siebel incorporated will be               calculated as shown below

 Value of SI = Profit afte * 10 = 25 * 10 = 250 million dollars

Publicly-traded Rand Technology, a direct competitor of Siebel's sale is taken as bench mark.

c What would be the value of the firm if we combine the results of both methods?

By combining value of both value technique we get 189 + 250 = 439 million dollars.

8 0
3 years ago
. A building owner charges net rent of $20 in the first year, $21 in the second year, and $22 in the third year, but is providin
Anit [1.1K]

Answer: $17.28

Explanation:

6 month free concession in first year drops rent to:

= 20 / 2

= $10

Effective rent = [Present value of Year 1 rent + Present value of Year 2 rent + Present value of Year 3 rent ] / [ 1 - (1 / (1 + rate)^ number of years) / rate]

= [(10 / (1 + 10%) ) + (21 / (1 + 10%)²) + (22 / (1 + 10%)³)] * [1 - (1 / (1 + 10%)³/ 10%)]

= (9.09 + 17.355 + 16.5289) / 2.48685

= $17.28

8 0
3 years ago
Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
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