Answer:
sorry your questions image is blurr
Hello,
y=35*6^x
==>ln(y)=ln(35)+x*ln(6)
==>e^ln(y)=e^(ln(35)+x*ln(6))
==>y=35*ln(6)*e^x≈62.711*e^x
Step-1 : Multiply the coefficient of the first term by the constant <span> <span> 1</span> • -2 = -2</span>
Step-2 : Find two factors of -2 whose sum equals the coefficient of the middle term, which is <span> 1 </span>.
<span><span> -2 + 1 = -1</span><span> -1 + 2 = 1 That's it</span></span>
Step-3 : Rewrite the polynomial splitting the middle term using the two factors found in step 2 above, -1 and 2
<span>x2 - 1x</span> + 2x - 2
Step-4 : Add up the first 2 terms, pulling out like factors :
x • (x-1)
Add up the last 2 terms, pulling out common factors :
2 • (x-1)
Step-5 : Add up the four terms of step 4 :
(x+2) • (x-1)
Which is the desired factorization
Final result : (x + 2) • (x - 1) • (x - 3) • (2x - 5)
<span>
</span>
Answer:
5.47% of the total variation between the two variables can be explained by the regression line.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given :
R value = 0.234
The R value is the correlation Coefficient ; which gives the type and level of correlation between two variables.
However, to Obtian the percentage variation which can be explained by by the regression line, we have to obtain the Coefficient of determination, R².
R² value is Obtained by taking the squared of the correlation Coefficient
Hence,
R² = 0.234² = 0.054756
R² = 0.05476 * 100% = 5.4756%
Hence, R² = 5.48%
This is interpreted as ; 5.47% of the total variation between the two variables can be explained by the regression line.
