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nasty-shy [4]
3 years ago
14

An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. Stock A has an expected return of 11% and a standard devi

ation of return of 18.0%. Stock B has an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation of return of 3%. The correlation coefficient between the returns of A and B is 0.50. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is _________.
a. 0%.
b. 50%.
c. 32%.
d. 55%.
Business
1 answer:
OlgaM077 [116]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. 0%

Explanation:

The expected rate of return of A = 11%

Expected rate of return of B = 7%

Risk free rate = rfr = 5%

Sdb = 3%

SDa = 18%

Correlation coefficient = 0.50

The formula used to solve for the required answer is in the attachment.

When computed, we have

0.000054-0.000054/0.000036+0.000216

= 0/0.000252

= 0

Therefore the first option is the correct answer

0% should be invested in stock A.

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Receive cash from customers, $15,000. Pay cash for employee salaries, $9,000. Pay cash for rent, $3,000. Receive cash from sale
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

Part 1

<u>Cash Account</u>

                                                                           $

<u>Debit :</u>

Receive cash from customers                     15,000

Sale of Equipment                                         8,000

Bank Loan                                                      4,000

Totals                                                            27,000

<u>Credit :</u>

Pay cash for employee salaries                   9,000

Rent                                                                3,000

Utilities                                                            1,000

Advertising                                                     7,000

Ending Balance                                              7,000

Totals                                                            27,000  

     

Part 2

Ending Balance is $7,000

Explanation:

Only Cash related purchases and receipts are posted to Cash Account. Thus ignore non-cash related transactions.

The Cash Account : Receipts are posted at the Debit side of this Account and Payments at the Credit Side.

The Balance : After determining the Totals of the Debit and Credit, the shortfall of any of that side represents the Balance.

7 0
3 years ago
Jane receives an email claiming that her bank account information has been lost and that she needs to click a link to update the
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

<em>Phishing</em>

Explanation:

Phishing is a cyber attack, in which hackers and other criminals try to gather personal data like passwords, photographs, money, access to cloud files, etc. via deceptive emails with links, sent to thousands and thousands of people.

If Jane clicks and provides her passwords, and other personal information into a form, trusting it is a legitimate bank , then She may lose all her money and have many other problems like a cloned credit card, privacy, etc.

5 0
3 years ago
Calculate the annual cash flows (annuity payments) from a fixed-payment annuity if the present value of the 15-year annuity is $
hram777 [196]

Answer:

Calculate the annual cash flows (annuity payments) from a fixed-payment annuity if the present value of the 15-year annuity is $750,000 and the annuity earns a guaranteed annual return of 6.85%. The payments are to begin at the end of five years.

  • $81,567.49

What is the amount of the annuity purchase required if you wish to receive a fixed payment of $100,000 for 25 years

  • $1,181,276

Explanation:

present value of the ordinary annuity = $750,000

n = 15

interest rate = 6.85%

in order to calculate the annuity payment, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity:

PV = annuity payment x annuity factor

annuity payment = PV / annuity factor

  • PV = $750,000
  • annuity factor 6.85%, 15 periods = 9.19484

annuity payment = $750,000 / 9.19484 = $81,567.49

since 6.85% is not a full number, it is hard to find annuity tables that contain it, but we can always search for annuity table calculators that can help us determine the annuity factor.

for the second question, we need to determine the PV of the ordinary annuity

PV = annuity payment x annuity factor

  • annuity payment = $100,000
  • annuity factor 6.85%, 25 periods = 11.81276

PV = $100,000 x 11.81276 = $1,181,276

8 0
3 years ago
An auditor client sells 15 to 20 units of product annually. A large portion of the annual sales occur in the last month of the f
otez555 [7]

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

Based on the information given that a large portion of sales occur at the last month of the year, a key audit concern or risk would be the revenue or sales cutoff. This concern is on the recognition of revenue in the appropriate period as most of the sales are recorded in the last month of the year. The risk exist that such sales are recognized to meet up with the yearly sales target of the organization. The performance of analytical procedure would not be effective as the results (trend) over the past 5 years have been similar. A test of internal controls at an interim date may also not be effective as there may be multiple level connivance to ensure that sales target are met. Also, the review of period end compensation of bonuses paid may not address the identified risk as such option B which deals with revenue recognition is the most appropriate option.

3 0
4 years ago
Ana Carillo and Associates is a medium-sized company located near a large metropolitan area in the Midwest. The company manufact
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

total budgeted costs = $189,400

budgeted production = 1,000 units

standard rate = $189,400 / 1,000 = $189.40 per unit

total actual costs = $197,200

actual production = 1,120 units

actual rate = $197,200 / 1,120 = $176.07 per unit

  1. total fixed overhead variance = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs =  $197,200 - $189,400 = $7,800 unfavorable. The actual overhead expense was higher than the budgeted.
  2. controllable variance = (actual rate - standard rate) x actual units = ($176.07 - $189.40) x 1,120 units = -$14,929.60 favorable. The actual overhead rate was lower than the standard rate, that is why the variance is positive.
  3. volume variance = (standard activity - actual activity) x standard rate = (1,000 - 1,120) x $189.40 = -1,120 x $189.40 = -$212,128 favorable. More units where produced than budgeted, that is why the variance is positive.

5 0
3 years ago
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