Answer:
repetitive movement
Explanation:
i actually had this question in my last period that's so fun hahha good luck
Francis, the plant manager, is interested in increasing the facility's productivity by utilizing MBO so that his managers and their employees are more focused on objectives. This month Francis asked his managers to concentrate on the two first steps of MBO, which are to jointly set objectives with their employees and to have managers develop action plans
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Explanation:</u></h3>
MBO refers to Management by Objectives. In this type of management system the managerial activities are integrated and are executed in a systematic manner. This is done for the management of the objectives of an organisation are managed both effectively and efficiently.
It focuses on both the organisation and the individual's objectives.In the given example, the aim of the plant manager is to increase the productivity of a Plant through MBO. Hence he can first jointly set objectives with the employees and assign managers to develop action plans.
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Answer:
d. Accounts Receivable.
Explanation:
In Financial accounting, liability can be defined as the amount of money being owed by an individual or organization to another.
Simply stated, liability is a debt being owed and as such it usually has "payable" in its account title on the balance sheet.
Generally, liabilities are recorded on the right side of the balance sheet and it comprises of financial informations such as warranties, bonds, loans, deferred revenues, mortgages, account payable etc.
Accounts Receivable is not considered to be a liability because it is the payment a business firm would receive from its customers for goods purchased or services taken on credit. Accounts Receivable are recorded in the current assets section of the balance sheet because they add value to a business firm.
Answer:
option (d) 50,000,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Amount of money for which bonds to be issued = $1 million = $100,000
The current exchange rate of the rupee = $.02
i.e 1 rupee = $0.02
Now,
The amount MNC needs in Rupees will be
= (Amount of bonds required in Dollar ) ÷ ( Current exchange rate )
= $100,000 ÷ $0.02 per rupees
= 50,000,000 Rupees
Hence,
The answer is option (d) 50,000,000