Answer:
Option c) how a consumer might trade off different levels of consumption of each of two goods, while staying at the same utility level.
Explanation:
This is the very definition of an indifference curve. The points in an indifference curve are the combinations of the quantities (level of consumption) of two different goods which will produce the very same utility to the consumer. The consumer will perceive any of those combinations as having the same utility for him.
For example, a usual graph of various indifference curves will look like the graph attached.
In this graph the combination of 2 pairs of shoes and 15 pants will be perceived as having the same utility as the combination of 5 pairs of shoes and 4 pants. Both are combinations in the same indifference curve, the green one, and the utility of any combination lying in that green curve will be rated the same: u = 1.
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
The amount Swifty debited to the appropriate account in 2017 to write off actual bad debts: $25,800
Explanation:
Allowance for uncollectible accounts at the end of 2017 = Allowance for uncollectible accounts at the end of 2016 + Bad debt expense of 2017 - The amount of write off actual bad debts.
The amount of write off actual bad debts = Allowance for uncollectible accounts at the end of 2016 + Bad debt expense of 2017 - Allowance for uncollectible accounts at the end of 2017 = $180,500 + $32,800 - $187,500 = $25,800
Answer:
rate = 6.54%
Explanation:
we need to find the rate at which a capital of 300,000 becomes 1,000,000 in a period of time of 19 years.
<u>So we build the following equation:</u>
![r=\sqrt[19]{1,000,000 \div 300,000}-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%3D%5Csqrt%5B19%5D%7B1%2C000%2C000%20%5Cdiv%20300%2C000%7D-1)
rate = 0.065417765 = 6.54% after rounding
This will be the rate my parent will require to generate 1,000,000 in 19 years with their current savings of 300,000.
Answer:
John takes $100 of currency from his wallet and deposits it into his checking account. If the bank adds the entire $100 to reserves, the money supply <u>WILL NOT CHANGE</u>, but if the bank lends out some of the $100, the money supply <u>WILL INCREASE</u>.
Explanation:
Any monetary injection to the banking system will increase the money supply only if the banking system (the whole set of banks) lends the money. The total effect is calculated by the increase in money x the money multiplier. The money multiplier = 1 / required reserves.
If the bank does not lend the money, then the money supply will not change.
