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valkas [14]
3 years ago
7

A credit balance in which of the following accounts would likely indicate an error? a.Accounts Payable b.Fees Earned c.Janet Jam

es, Capital d.Salary Expense
Business
1 answer:
maxonik [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

d. Salary Expense

Explanation:

Salary Expense refers to the salaries or fixed payment by an organization to it's employees. It is an expense and as per the rules of accounting, "debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains."

Salary expense represents salary which has been earned whether paid or not, as per the accrual concept of accounting.

Thus, a credit balance in Salary Expense represents a likely error since such an account is usually associated with a debit balance, being an expense.

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Wallis company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. the company uses a predetermined plantwide overhea
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $10 per direct labor hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

estimated manufacturing overhead= $2,886,000

estimated direct labor dollars= 288,600

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2,886,000/288,600= $10 per direct labor hour

8 0
4 years ago
Using the interest formula, compute the interest and maturity values for each of the following notes: Principal Interest Term Ra
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

The answer is:

A: I=$76,67    MV=$4076,67

B: I=$293,75  MV=$10293,75

C: I=$138,125 MV=$6638,125

D: I=$36,75    MV=$936,75

Explanation:

Notes are often a key component of how a business finances its operations. For purposes of accounting, it's important to be able to calculate the maturity value of a note to know how much a business will have to pay or receive when the note comes due.

In general, notes are a form of short-term commercial financing. The maturity value is the amount of money that the company would receive when the note comes due.

When you know the principal amount, the rate, and the time, the amount of interest can be calculated by using the formula:

I = P*r*t

I= Total interest

P= principal

r= interest rate

t= time

To calculate the Maturity Value you need to sum the principal to the total interest accumulated over time.

Maturity Value= Principal + Interest

<u>In this exercise:</u>

<u>A:</u>

Principal: $4000    r=11,5%       t=60 days

I=4000*0,115*(60/360)= $76,67

Maturity Value= 4000 + 76,67= $4076,67

<u>B:</u>

Principal: $10,000          r=11.75%        t=90 days

I=10000*0,1175*(90/360)= $293,75

Maturity Value= 10000+ 293,75= $10293,75

<u>C:</u>

Principal= $6,500   r=12.75%          time=60 days

I=6500*0,1275*(60/360)= $138,125

Maturity Value= 6500+ 138,125= $6638,125

<u>D:</u>

Principal= $900     r= 12.25%     time=120 days

I=900*0,1225*(120/360)= $36,75

Maturity Value= 900+ 36,75= $936,75

4 0
4 years ago
OS Environmental provides cost-effective solutions for managing regulatory requirements and environmental needs specific to the
MrMuchimi

Answer:

In accrual basis accounting, expenses are recorded in the period when their matching revenues are obtained.

In this case, even if the full interest will be paid at maturity, interest expense will still be recorded in each period according to the information that we are given in the question.

Interest expense to be recorded by December 31

5,200,000 * 0.12 = 624,000 / 2 = 312,000

Interest expense to be recorded by September 30

5,200,000 * 0.10 = 520,000 * 3/12 = 130,000

Interest expense to be recorded by October 31

5,200,000 * 0.09 = 468,000 * 4/12 = 156,000

Interest expense to be recorded by January 31

5,200,000 * 0.06 = 312,000 * 7/12 = 182,000

3 0
3 years ago
**plato question**
timama [110]

Answer:

C. Foreign Service

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The direct write-off method: multiple choice follows the expense recognition (matching) principle. Is not permitted under GAAP.
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer: is permitted if results are similar to the allowance method

Explanation:

The direct write-off method is refered to as an accounting method whereby the uncollectible accounts receivable are being written off as bad debt. Here, the bad debts expense account will be debited while the accounts receivable will be credited.

The direct write-off method is permitted if results are similar to the allowance method. For the allowance method, it should be noted that an estimation of the bad debt future amount will be charged to the reserve account once the sale takes place.

4 0
3 years ago
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