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2 years ago

I’m confused about these questions. Compositions and inverses ⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alekssandra [29.7K]2 years ago

7 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

1. (f+g)(x) = 2x^2 +4x +2

2. (f -g)(x) = -2x^2 +4x -4

5. (f+g)(x) = x^2 +2x -1

6. (g -f)(x) = x^2 -2x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

None of these are compositions. They are only sums or differences.

(f±g)(x) = f(x) ± g(x)

1. (f+g)(x) = f(x) +g(x) = (4x -1) +(2x^2 +3)

(f+g)(x) = 2x^2 +4x +2

2. (f -g)(x) = f(x) -g(x) = (4x -1) -(2x^2 +3)

(f -g)(x) = -2x^2 +4x -4

5. (f +g)(x) = f(x) +g(x) = (2x) +(x^2 -1)

(f+g)(x) = x^2 +2x -1

6. (g -f)(x) = g(x) -f(x) = (x^2 -1) -(2x)

(g -f)(x) = x^2 -2x -1

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This is uhh due by 8 tommorow mornin please help me

Ira Lisetskai [31]

1 Simplify

x to

≤

−

+5≤−4

2 Subtract

5 from both sides.

≤

−

≤−4−5

3 Simplify

−

−4−5 to

−

−9.

≤

−

≤−9

4 Multiply both sides by

≤

−

x≤−9×3

5 Simplify

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≤

−

x≤−27

I hope this help you

6 0

2 years ago

In a particular game, a fair die is tossed. If the number of spots showing is either four or five, you win $1. If the number of

TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either you win at least $1, or you do not. Games are independent. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability of winning at least $1 on a single game:

The die has 6 sides.

If it lands on 4, 5 or 6(either of the three sides), you win at least $1. So

$p = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5$

You are going to play the game twice.

This means that $n = 2$

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is

This is P(X = 2).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{2} = 0.25$

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

4 0

2 years ago

5 feet 8 inches equals how many inches

sweet [91]

There are 12 inches in a foot. To find how many inches are in 5 feet, multiply by 12:

5*12 = 60 inches

Add the 8 additional inches:

60 + 8 = 68 inches

The answer is 68.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A survey of a group’s viewing habits over the last year revealed the following

Tom [10]

Answer:

0.52

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the percentage of the group in which none of the three sports watched is shown below:

= gymnastic percentage + baseball percentage + soccer percentage - gymnastic & baseball percentage - baseball & soccer percentage - gymnastic & soccer percentage + three sports percentage

= 0.28 + 0.29 + 0.19 - 0.14 - 0.12 - 0.18 + 0.08

= 0.48

Now the percentage is

= 1 - 0.48

= 0.52

7 0

3 years ago

examine the variety of shapes below if a shape has shading then find the area of the Shaded region

Svetach [21]

<em>only the last figure (i.e figure e) is shaded </em>

The shaded region is a triangle

Area of a triangle

= ½ × b × h

= ½ × 14 × 5

= ½ × 70

= 35yd²

6 0

2 years ago