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STALIN [3.7K]
2 years ago
7

I’m confused about these questions. Compositions and inverses ⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alekssandra [29.7K]2 years ago
7 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1. (f+g)(x) = 2x^2 +4x +2

  2. (f -g)(x) = -2x^2 +4x -4

  5. (f+g)(x) = x^2 +2x -1

  6. (g -f)(x) = x^2 -2x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

None of these are compositions. They are only sums or differences.

  (f±g)(x) = f(x) ± g(x)

__

1. (f+g)(x) = f(x) +g(x) = (4x -1) +(2x^2 +3)

  (f+g)(x) = 2x^2 +4x +2

__

2. (f -g)(x) = f(x) -g(x) = (4x -1) -(2x^2 +3)

  (f -g)(x) = -2x^2 +4x -4

__

5. (f +g)(x) = f(x) +g(x) = (2x) +(x^2 -1)

  (f+g)(x) = x^2 +2x -1

__

6. (g -f)(x) = g(x) -f(x) = (x^2 -1) -(2x)

  (g -f)(x) = x^2 -2x -1

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This is uhh due by 8 tommorow mornin please help me
Ira Lisetskai [31]

1 Simplify

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3

x

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1

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x to

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x

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x

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+

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≤

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x

​

+5≤−4

2 Subtract

5

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−

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x

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9

3

x

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4 Multiply both sides by

3

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×

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6 0
2 years ago
In a particular game, a fair die is tossed. If the number of spots showing is either four or five, you win $1. If the number of
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either you win at least $1, or you do not. Games are independent. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability of winning at least $1 on a single game:

The die has 6 sides.

If it lands on 4, 5 or 6(either of the three sides), you win at least $1. So

p = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5

You are going to play the game twice.

This means that n = 2

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{2} = 0.25

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

4 0
2 years ago
5 feet 8 inches equals how many inches
sweet [91]
There are 12 inches in a foot. To find how many inches are in 5 feet, multiply by 12:

5*12 = 60 inches

Add the 8 additional inches:

60 + 8 = 68 inches

The answer is 68.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A survey of a group’s viewing habits over the last year revealed the following
Tom [10]

Answer:

0.52

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the percentage of the group in which none of the three sports watched is shown below:

= gymnastic percentage + baseball percentage + soccer percentage - gymnastic & baseball percentage - baseball & soccer percentage - gymnastic & soccer percentage + three sports percentage

= 0.28 + 0.29 + 0.19 - 0.14 - 0.12 - 0.18 + 0.08

= 0.48

Now the percentage is

= 1 - 0.48

= 0.52

7 0
3 years ago
examine the variety of shapes below if a shape has shading then find the area of the Shaded region ​
Svetach [21]

<em>only the last figure (i.e figure e) is shaded </em>

The shaded region is a triangle

Area of a triangle

= ½ × b × h

= ½ × 14 × 5

= ½ × 70

= 35yd²

6 0
2 years ago
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