Answer:
The correct answer is B. arise often through application of (correct) accounting principles
.
Explanation:
Accounting analysis is an important precondition for an effective financial analysis. This is because the quality of the financial analysis, and the inferences made, depends on the quality of the implicit accounting information, the raw material for the analysis. Even though the accounting according to the accumulation principle allows to perceive the financial performance and condition of a company, which is not possible in the case of cash-based accounting, the imperfections of the company can distort the economic content of the financial reports.
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Answer:
2. VARIED FROM PERSON TO PERSON
Explanation:
Answer:
PV= $9,626.49
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $1,500
Interest rate= 9%
Number of years= 10
First, we will determine the future value, using the following formulas:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= cash flow
FV= {1,500*[(1.09^10) - 1]} / 0.09
FV= $22,789.395
Now, the present value:
PV=FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 22,789.395/(1.09^10)
PV= $9,626.49
Answer:
a. 10.04%
b. $82.78
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)
= 5% + 0.72 × 7%
= 5% + 5.04%
= 10.04%
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.
b. Now the intrinsic value would be
= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)
= $5 ÷ 6.04%
= $82.78
