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nasty-shy [4]
3 years ago
10

What does clause 40 in the Magna Carta mean? ( please explain)

History
2 answers:
Oxana [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Of enduring importance to people appealing to the charter over the last 800 years are the famous clauses 39 and 40: “No free man shall be seized, imprisoned, dispossessed, outlawed, exiled or ruined in any way, nor in any way proceeded against, except by the lawful judgement of his peers and the law of the land.

Explanation:

Lyrx [107]3 years ago
7 0
“No free man shall be seized, imprisoned, dispossessed, outlawed, exiled or ruined in any way, nor in any way proceeded against, except by the lawful judgement of his peers and the law of the land.
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The Magna Carta meant that 
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2) the king could not raise new taxes without a council of baron's approval (restricting the power of the king to raise new taxes)
Explanation:
The Magna Carta was signed by King of England in June 1215 and was the primary document to inflict legal limits on the king's personal powers. Clause sixty one declared that a committee of twenty 5 barons may meet and overthrow the desire<span> of the king—a serious challenge to John's authority as ruling monarch.
</span>This has been the most<span> concern of the nobles </span>within the<span> years preceding the document </span>as a result of<span> taxes had been raised to fund a war against France. The nobility benefited </span>as a result of<span> the </span>royal charter outlined<span> individual rights and </span>emphasised<span> the role of laws in society. Clause </span>thirty-nine<span> states, </span>for instance<span>, </span>that folks ought to<span> be </span>corrected solely once<span> a ruling by their peers or by the sanctions of the law.</span>

7 0
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In the the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk Russia had to abandon
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In addition, Russia had to agree to pay about US$ 6 billion in reparations to Germany.
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