(-3, 2) because you take the derivative and youll get y'=2x+6 then solve for x and that is -3 then put -3 in the original equation and you get 2
Answer: the answer would be one because they are both the same length and there is an acute angle
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.
<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>
It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.
The variance of the distribution is given by:
V(X) = np(1 - p)
In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 8, p = 0.504.
Hence the variance is given by:
V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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X=1498-202. 1 term was used. x=1296
