This is to ensure that they complete the project within the
appointed period of time as well as within the budget given to them. It also shows how effective the government is
in implementing their projects. If they
don’t do so within the period and the budget then people will question their
efficiency in completing their assignments and project within the period
prescribed.
Answer:
The minimum cost will be "$214085".
Explanation:
i) When quantity = 1-1500, price = $ 12.50 , and holding price is $12.50 * 20 %= $2.50.
ii) When quantity = 1501 -10,000, price = $ 12.45 , and holding price is $12.45 * 20 %= $2.49.
iii) When quantity = 10,0001- and more, price = $ 12.40 , and holding price is $12.40 * 20 %= $2.48.
know we should calculate the total cost of EOQ1 and break ever points (1501 to 10,000)units
The total cost is less then 15001. So, optimal order quantity is 1501, that's why cost is = $214085.
The currency would deflate, though this never happens
Answer:
Ball can certainly hold Sullivan to a contract for sale of the land. Sullivan in his reply to Ball's enquiry offered to sell the forty-acre tract of land at $60,000 and nothing less. Ball accepted this offer by Sullivan by stating his acceptance.
These exchanges of offer and acceptance meet the terms of a valid contract. Therefore, Ball can always hold Sullivan for contract enforcement.
Explanation:
In making a valid contract, offer and acceptance are key ingredients, with specific consideration. Since the two parties, Ball and Sullivan are agreed on the consideration and have exchanged offer and acceptance, the validity of the contract is enhanced thereupon.
Answer:
Option 1 is more convenient.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The annual salary is $100,000. You are offered two options for a severance package. Option 1 pays you 6 months' salary now. Option 2 pays you and your heirs $6,000 per year forever
The present value of option 1 is:
PV= 6*100,000= $600,000
To calculate the present value of option 2 we need to use the present value formula of a perpetual annuity:
PV= Cash flow/i
PV= 6,000/0.11= $54,545
There is no doubt that option 1 is better.
