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Lelechka [254]
2 years ago
6

WILL MARK BRAINLIEST

Business
1 answer:
Jobisdone [24]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$115,000

Explanation:

150,000-35,000

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its all da same because it just a company

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3 years ago
Monte Vista uses the perpetual inventory system. At the beginning of the quarter, Monte Vista has $44,000 in inventory. During t
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Answer:

The answer is $18,810

Explanation:

Cost of goods sold equal:

Beginning or opening inventory plus purchases minus ending or closing inventory.

Monte Vista returned some inventories and also took advantage of discount. So this will reduce the cost of total purchases for the quarter.

Total purchase = new purchases minus purchase returns minus any discount enjoyed.

So total purchase is now:

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Therefore cost of goods sold is:

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3 years ago
Trent is a skilled sketch artist who wants to create images for his online portfolio. He is even
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Answer:

A digital tablet

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3 years ago
Gouda Company and Cheddar Company had the same sales, total costs, and income from operations for the current fiscal year; yet G
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

If both companies have the sames sales volume, total costs and income from operations, the reason why Gouda has a lower break even point is that their variable costs are lower. We use the contribution margin per unit to calculate the break even point and the contribution margin per unit = sales price - variable costs. The question states that total costs are equal, but it doesn't say anything about variable or fixed costs.

Assuming that Gouda is above break even point, each sale will generate a higher operating profit since the contribution margin is higher.

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3 0
3 years ago
A collateralized mortgage obligation pays a 2% coupon rate on the first tranche plus any prepayments until its $50 million par v
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Answer:

The correct answer is b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk.

Explanation:

A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) is a type of security backed by mortgage. It is comprised of a pool of mortgages that are bundled together and sold as an investment. Prepayment risk is the risk of loss of interest income due to early repayment of the principal by the borrower.

In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.

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3 years ago
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