(60,58200) , (90,85200)
slope = (85200 - 58200) / (90 - 60) = 27,000/30 = 900
y = mx + b
slope(m) = 900
(60,58200)...x = 60 and y = 58200
sub and find b, the y int
58200 = 900(60) + b
58200 = 54000 + b
58200 - 54000 = b
4200 = b
ur equation is : C(x) = 900x + 4200 <== ur equation
We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
%change=100(final-initial)/initial
In this case:
%change=100(3.18-2.56)/2.56
%change=100(0.62)/2.56
%change=62/2.56
%change=775/32%
%change=24.21875%
%change≈24% (to nearest whole percent)
Answer:
Option Two sides have the same length which is less than the length of the third side
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
The right triangle of the figure has two legs and one hypotenuse
The length sides of the two legs are the same, because is a
triangle
The third side is the hypotenuse and the hypotenuse is always greater that the legs
therefore
The answer is
Two sides have the same length which is less than the length of the third side