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icang [17]
3 years ago
13

Which one of the following best describes an agreement you make today to exchange U.S. dollars for British pounds three months f

rom now
Business
1 answer:
Elza [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

can you list the following

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Huish Awnings makes custom awnings for homes and businesses. The company uses an activity-based costing system for its overhead
Romashka [77]

Answer and Explanation:

The preparation of the First stage allocation of overhead costs to the activity cost pools  is presented below

Particulars                   Making awnings  Job Support      Other   Total

Production Overhead $67,500           $60,000      $22,500 $150,000

Office Expenses       $8,000           $65,000      $27,000 $100,000

The production overhead is allocated in 45% 40%, 15% and 100%

And,

The office expenses is allocated in 8%, 65%, 27% and 100%

The same is shown above

6 0
4 years ago
What refers to the amount of a product offered for sale at all possible prices in a market
WARRIOR [948]
Law of supply............
4 0
4 years ago
The company has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity. Bonds pay 10% coupon (semi-annual payout), mature in 20 y
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

Explanation:

Dividend discount model (DDM) is a method of calculating the cost of equity. The formula is as follows;

cost of equity; r = (D1/P0) +g

whereby, D1= next year's dividend

P0 = Current price of the stock = 27

g = the stock's dividend growth rate = 8% or 0.08 as a decimal

D1 = D0 (1+g)

D1 = 2 (1+0.08) = 2.16

Next, plug in the numbers to the formula

r = (2.16/27)+0.08

r = 0.08 + 0.08

r = 0.16 or 16%

<u>Cost of equity using CAPM</u>

CAPM is Capital asset pricing model. It is also used to estimate the cost of equity.

CAPM; r = risk free + beta ( market risk premium)

r = 0.10 +1.2(0.05)

r = 0.10 + 0.06

r = 0.16 or 16%

Therefore, DDM and CAPM give the same cost of equity.

7 0
3 years ago
Wylie has been offered the choice of receiving $5,000 today or an agreed-upon amount in 1 year. While negotiating the future amo
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

The answer is 14%

Explanation:

Formula for Future value (FV)                    FV = PV (1+ni)

Whereas FV= Future value, PV = present value, n= number of years, i= TVOM in percentage

Rearranging the formula for i

     i =        (FV/PV)-1

So, i =       (5,700/5,000)-1

      i =      1.14-1

      i =      0.14

      i =       14%

(0.14x100=14%)

8 0
4 years ago
The texas instruments company has 9 percent coupon bonds on the market with seven years left to maturity. the bonds make annual
lilavasa [31]

To Calculate YTM,

YTM = {C + (F-P)/n}/(F+P)/2

where C = coupon rate,

F = face value

P = price

n = no.of years

Therefore, YTM = {90+(1000-874.6)/7}/(1000+874.6)/2

=> 11.72%

3 0
4 years ago
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