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tekilochka [14]
2 years ago
11

The company has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity. Bonds pay 10% coupon (semi-annual payout), mature in 20 y

ears, and sell for $849.54. The company stock beta is 1.2. The risk-free rate is 10%, and the market risk premium is 5%. The company is a constant growth firm that just paid a dividend of $2.00, sells for $27.00 per share, and has a growth rate of 8%. The company's marginal tax rate is 40%. The cost of equity using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) and the dividend discount model (DDM) is:
Business
1 answer:
vladimir2022 [97]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Dividend discount model (DDM) is a method of calculating the cost of equity. The formula is as follows;

cost of equity; r = (D1/P0) +g

whereby, D1= next year's dividend

P0 = Current price of the stock = 27

g = the stock's dividend growth rate = 8% or 0.08 as a decimal

D1 = D0 (1+g)

D1 = 2 (1+0.08) = 2.16

Next, plug in the numbers to the formula

r = (2.16/27)+0.08

r = 0.08 + 0.08

r = 0.16 or 16%

<u>Cost of equity using CAPM</u>

CAPM is Capital asset pricing model. It is also used to estimate the cost of equity.

CAPM; r = risk free + beta ( market risk premium)

r = 0.10 +1.2(0.05)

r = 0.10 + 0.06

r = 0.16 or 16%

Therefore, DDM and CAPM give the same cost of equity.

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What is the present value of 4360 to be received at the beginning of each of 30 periods discounted at 5% compound interest
Sloan [31]

Answer:

The right solution is "70375.08".

Explanation:

Given that,

Present value,

= 4360

Interest rate,

= 5%

Time period,

= 30

Now,

The present value of inflows will be:

= (1+rate)\times \frac{Present \ value[1-(1+Interest \ rate)^{-time \ period}]}{rate}

= 1.05\times 4360\times \frac{[1-(1.05)^{-30}]}{0.05}

= 4360\times 16.1410736

= 70375.08

5 0
2 years ago
You observe the following information regarding Companies X and Y: ∙ Company X has a higher expected return than Company Y. ∙ Co
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

Option D is correct one.

Company X has a lower coefficient of variation than Company Y.

Explanation:

This is because company X has a lower standard deviation of returns than Company Y. Coefficient of variation = standard deviation/mean*100. Also mean of X will be higher as its expected return is higher than Y. So, the numerator (standard deviation) is lower and denominator (mean) is higher in case of X. This will lower its coefficient of variation than Company Y.

4 0
3 years ago
Explain the difference between a flat tax and a graduated income tax. in your own words.​
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

flat tax is a set percentage that dies not change

graduated tax changes according to the amount being taxed. usually, the higher the amount, the higher the tax rate is.

8 0
2 years ago
If economists calculate the gdp for 2009, using current prices of year 2009, what are they estimating?
Vlad [161]
They are estimating the Nominal GDP. The Nominal GDP measures the quarterly economic output that occurred in the year. This would analyze production, employment, all the elements in the financial circulation. This is different from the real GDP because here it would include the inflation of prices that occurred. Nominal GDP only reflects on the economical changed within the current year regardless of inflation. 
6 0
3 years ago
Banks Company sold merchandise on account for $35,000 with terms 2/10, n/30. The cost of goods sold was $27,600. If the invoice
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

The amount of cash received by Banks Company is $34,300

Explanation:

The computation of the cash received by the bank company is shown below:

= Merchandise amount - discount

where,

Merchandise amount is $35,000

And, the discount equal to

= Merchandise amount × discount percentage

= $35,000 × 2%

= $700

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $35,000 - $700

= $34,300

3 0
3 years ago
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