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3 years ago

Can someone tell me if I'm right or wrong

Mathematics

2 answers:

dem82 [27]3 years ago

7 0

Step-by-step explanation:

well, it is a combination of 2 shapes.

I, personally, would have split it into the small 2x2 square (in the top right corner) and then into the 6x(7-2) rectangle.

that would be

2x2 + 6x5 = 4 + 30 = 34 cm²

but you started a valid approach too.

you "sliced" off a narrow rectangle along the whole right side. 7x2.

and that leaves now a 4x(7-2) rectangle.

so,

7x2 + 4x5 = 14 + 20 = 34 cm²

yes, this was my answer.

how did this suddenly appear as your answer ?

Sunny_sXe [5.5K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:
34cm^2

Explanation:
This problem would be done by splitting the shape into two smaller shapes, finding each of their areas, and then adding the areas together. So, you are on the right track because the area of a smaller shape within the whole shape (the skinny rectangle on the right) would be 14cm^2 because 7cm x 2cm = 14cm^2. That would leave the area of the remaining shape on the left to be 20cm^2 because you would subtract 2cm from 7cm to find the length of its side (7cm - 2cm = 5cm). This would make the dimensions of the smaller shape 4cm by 5cm, making its area 20cm^2. Then, whenever you add the two areas together (14cm^2 + 20cm^2) you would get the area of the whole shape, which is 34cm^2.

Numerical explanation:
7cm x 2cm = 14cm^2
7cm - 2cm = 5cm
4cm x 5cm = 20cm^2
14cm^2 + 20cm^2 = 34cm^2

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

As per the question,

let us consider f(x) = tan(x).

We know that <u>The Maclaurin series is given by:</u>

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So, differentiate the given function 3 times in order to find f'(x), f''(x) and f'''(x).

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By putting all the values in the Maclaurin series, we get

$f(x) = f(0) + \frac{f^{'}(0)}{1!}\cdot x+ \frac{f^{''}(0)}{2!}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{f^{'''}(0)}{3!}\cdot x^{3}+......$

$f(x) = 0 + \frac{1}{1}\cdot x+ \frac{0}{2}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{2}{6}\cdot x^{3}+......$

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Therefore, the expansion of tan x at x = 0 is

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