Answer:
Explanation:
Standard pounds per cake = 3 pounds
Standard unit price = $3
Standard pounds 5500 cakes = 16,500 pounds
Actual pounds per 5500 cakes = 16,650
Variance = (16,650 - 16,500)=150
Cost of actual materials used = actual materials * standard price
=16,650*3 =49,950
Cost of work in progress = Standard materials * standard price = 16,500*3= 49.500
Direct material quantity variance = Quantity variance * 3
150*3 = 450
Journal entry
Debit work in progress = 49,500
Debit material quantity variance = 450
Credit Material = 49,950
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
Since in the question, it is mentioned that Erney applied for a carpentry apprenticeship program. Also he took the test. This is not a illegal as if he wants to work in two specialized field than he could co but the work should be legal in nature and both the work are legal itself
Hence, the given statement is false
True-No conflict will exist between the NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two equally risky but mutually exclusive projects, if the projects' cost of capital exceeds the rate at which the projects' NPV profiles cross.
<h3>
What is NPV and IRR methods?</h3>
While the IRR approach calculates the projected percentage return, the NPV method produces the predicted dollar worth of a project.
Purpose. The breakeven cash flow level of a project is the emphasis of the IRR approach while project surpluses are the subject of the NPV method.
assistance with decisions. Since it provides a dollar return, the NPV approach delivers an outcome that serves as the basis for an investment decision. The IRR approach is not helpful in making this choice because its percentage return does not indicate to the investor how much money will be produced.
Reinvestment rate. When NPV is utilized, the firm's cost of capital is the assumed rate of return for reinvesting intermediate cash flows; when it is the internal rate of return.
To learn more about NPV and IRR methods from the given link:
brainly.com/question/21241533
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Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:
WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7BFV%20%5C%3A%20inflow%7D%7BPV%20%5C%3A%20outflow%7D%7D%20-1)
![MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C268%2C386.82%7D%7B2%2C609%2C179.84%7D%7D%20-1)
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%
Answer:
B)factory overhead cost volume variance
Explanation:
From the question, there was an an assumption that the standard fixed overhead rate is based on full capacity, in this case the cost of available but unused productive capacity is indicated by the factory overhead cost volume variance. Factory overhead cost volume variance can be regarded as the difference that exist between the fixed overhead that is associated to those good/ service from the firm on production volume and the budgeted amount that is associated to goods) services that are been produced. fixed overhead costs
could be Factory rent and others.
