Answer:
All the 4 statements are correct.
Explanation:
The International Accounting Standard on Currency changes says that the all the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary must be reported at market value of the asset both at the end of the year and at the time of sale of asset & payment of liability. So this means that the statement a and d are correct statements because the translation gain or loss is reported by using the spot rate which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency. Similarly, the statement b and c are correct because at the time of sale of subsidiary assets we are actually recognizing the remeasurement gain or loss by using the spot rate, which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency.
Im not so sure yu should ask somebody thats really good in math sorry i couldnt help
Answer:
(C) Partner A will have a smaller loss absorption potential than L
The 30 min operation is 20
the 1 hr operation is 10
and the 2 hr operation is 5
Answer:
d. Product financing arrangement.
Explanation:
A business transaction in which an organization sells and agrees to repurchase inventory with the repurchase price equal to the initial or original sales price plus the carrying and financing costs is known as the Product financing arrangement.
A product financing arrangement is more likely to exist when the seller commits to having a third party client purchase the item and then agrees to repurchase the item from the third party client.
It's noteworthy to know, that the seller controls how the item sold under either of the above mentioned situations is analysed and disposed of.
