7 less than 4 times a number is 5 less than 6 times the same number. Find the number.

Let A={1'3'5'6}<br> B={0'7}<br> check whether A and B are disjoint sets

Setler79 [48]

Given:

The sets are $A=\{1,3,5,6\}$ and $B=\{0,7\}$ .

To find:

Whether A and B are disjoint sets or not.

Solution:

Two sets are called disjoint sets if there are no common elements between them.

We have,

$A=\{1,3,5,6\}$

$B=\{0,7\}$

Clearly, there is not common elements between the set A and set B.

Therefore, the sets A and B are disjoint sets.

4 0

2 years ago

Which of the following represents the graph of f(x)=1/2^x+2

trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

Hi! Next time attach all possible answers in media form. Check attachment for the answer. Please mark brainliest I'm trying to get to next rank, have a good day. Message me if you ever need more help.

6 0

3 years ago

Enter the values needed to find the length CB. (Simplify your answer)

Marat540 [252]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the values needed

4 0

2 years ago

Plz answer im stuck on this question

xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer:

It b

Step-by-step explanation:

can u rate it brainliest

4 0

2 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

2 years ago