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amm1812
4 years ago
10

On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre

e accidents per week. (a) What is the probability that a given day has no accidents? (b) Whenever there is an accident, the risk is 1 in 8 that personal injury will result. What is the probability that February (which has four weeks) has at least one accident with a personal injury?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Zarrin [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

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Answer:

<h2>3000</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

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70%=2100

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What is the inverse of f(x)=(x+6)2 for x≥–6 where function g is the inverse of function f? g(x)=x√−6, x≥0 g(x)=x−6−−−−√, x≥6 g(x
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Answer:

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Replace x with y and y with x

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7 0
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