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velikii [3]
3 years ago
7

A conventional peg refers to. Multiple Choice where the exchange rate remains within a narrow margin of 2 percent relative to a

statistically identified trend for six months or more, and the exchange rate arrangement cannot be considered as floating. where the exchange rate is largely market determined without an ascertainable or predictable path for the rate. involves the confirmation of the country authorities’ de jure exchange rate arrangement. when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
Business
1 answer:
Trava [24]3 years ago
3 0

A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.

for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means

  • conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
  • The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention

From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.

learn more about exchange rates from:

brainly.com/question/21384395

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Product design but I’m also a little convinced it’s also product layout
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3 years ago
The quantity demanded of Blu-ray players increased 9% when the price of DVDs increased 5%. What is the estimated cross-price ela
Mila [183]

Answer:

cross price elasticity of demand = 1.8

Explanation:

cross price elasticity of demand = % change in quantity of X / % change in price of Y

cross price elasticity of demand = 9% / 5% = 1.8

When the cross price elasticity of demand is positive, it means that the products are substitutes. If the cross price elasticity is negative, then the products are complements.

8 0
3 years ago
Which would be considered part of an employee’s salary?
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

Amount of money the employee will earn each month.

4 0
2 years ago
A company issues $16200000, 5.8%, 20-year bonds to yield 6% on January 1, 2020. Interest is paid on June 30 and December 31. The
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

The amount of interest expense which will be recognized in 2020 is $949,681.45.

Explanation:

The following are given in the question:

Bond value = $16200000

Bond interest rate = 5.8%

Proceed from bond = $15825541

Yield rate = 6%

The amount of interest expense which will be recognized in 2020 can now be calculated as follows:

Interest expense for January 1, 2020 to June 30, 2020 = Proceed from bond * Yield rate * (6 / 12) = $15825541 * 6% * (6 / 12) = $474,766.23

Discount amortized during first 6 months = Interest expense for January 1, 2020 to June 30, 2020 - (Bond value * Bond interest rate * (6 / 12)) = $474,766.23 - ($16200000 * 5.8% * (6 / 12)) = $474,766.23 - 469,800 = $4,966.23

Interest expense for July 1, 2020 to December 31, 2020 = (Proceed from bond + Discount amortized during first 6 months) * Yield rate * (6 / 12) = ($15825541 + $4,966.23) * 6% * (6 / 12) = $474,915.22

Interest expense to be recognized in 2020 = Interest expense for January 1, 2020 to June 30, 2020 + Interest expense for July 1, 2020 to December 31, 2020 = $474,766.23 + $474,915.22 = $949,681.45

Therefore, the amount of interest expense which will be recognized in 2020 is $949,681.45.

3 0
3 years ago
The market risk, beta, of a security is equal to Group of answer choices the variance of the security's returns divided by the c
GaryK [48]

Answer:

the covariance between the security's return and the market return divided by the variance of the market's returns

Explanation:

The market risk, beta of the security would be equivalent to the

Beta = Cov(rm, rs) ÷  Var(rm)

Rm denotes  market return

rs denotes security return

Cov denotes covariance

Var denotes variance

Hence, the second option is correct

And, the rest of the options are wrong

3 0
3 years ago
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