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kozerog [31]
3 years ago
9

What is the solution to 0.5 (4x -10) = 2x +4

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alisiya [41]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

if you are looking for an equation it would be y=3x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark brainliest

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Nikolay [14]

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

Substitute x = 1/2 arccot(u/2), which transforms the integral to

\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}

and it follows that

\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}

7 0
2 years ago
Mo had 14 tutoriang session. each session was 35 minutes long. How many minutes did Mo spend in the 14 session Combined?
ddd [48]

Answer:

430 minutes total

Step-by-step explanation:

Mo had 35 minutes sessions 14 times. You have to multiply 35 by 14 to get the answer which is 430 minutes.

5 0
3 years ago
What is x for -3(x+5)=-9
Andrew [12]
-3(x+5)=-9
-3x-15=-9
+15 +15
-3x=6
-1x=2
1x=-2
x=-2
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I have 1/3 of a pie. You have 1/3 of a pie. Add the pieces of pie together. How much pie do we have?
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

To add fractions add the numbers on top to each other and leave the bottom numbers alone if they are the same number.

\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1+1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}

8 0
2 years ago
Please need help I will be MARKING as BRIANILIST. thank you so much. ​​
dlinn [17]

Answer:

C. Multiply 3 by 18

Step-by-step explanation:

Susan reads:

1 page in 3 mins

So,

1 page = 3 mins

<u><em>If we want the time for 18 pages, we would multiply both sides by 18</em></u>

So,

18 pages = 3×18 mins

18 pages = 54 mins

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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