A dual-currency bond is known to be a hybrid debt instrument that often has payment obligations over the life of the issue. A dual currency bond is a straight fixed-rate bond issued in one currency that pays coupon interest in that same currency.
- In dual currency bond, the borrower often makes coupon payments in one currency, but get the principal at maturity in another currency.
Its advantage is that Investors using this bonds often gets higher coupon payments than straight bonds etc.
Straight fixed-rate bond issues often have a Known maturity date where the principal of the bond issue is said to be repaid.
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Answer:
I believe following three jobs would be best for you
1: University Lecturer
2: Market Researcher
3: Marketing Consultant
Explanation:
1: University Lecturer
I am very good student and have strong grip over different academic concepts, I always have stood first in my class. I always got Distinction in my college. Moreover, I am very good at giving presentation, theretofore, I definitely believe that I can perform very well in teaching at the university level.
2: Market Researcher
I am very good at conducting research. I have conducted couple of market researches like measuring brand loyalty of Pepsi, Coke and Aquafina etc. Therefore, this job would be right and good for me.
3: Marketing Consultant
I can work as an independent Marketing Consultant and provide different Marketing expertise to clients, including SEO (search engine optimization - related to google), content Marketing and mobile marketing. I am very much proficient in this field as well, so this also can be right and good job for me.
In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset would be compared to:
under U.S. GAAP Fair value and under IFRS recoverable amount.
Explanation:
In US GAAP, the cost of financial asset depreciation is calculated as the difference between carried value and fair value; in compliance with IFRS, a loss of financial asset impairment is defined as the difference between carrying value and the percentage of the asset that can be recouped.
In compliance with US-based ASC 360-10-35-20. The recovery of a historically identified impairment loss (or "restoration") is forbidden because an item is deemed to have a new cost base after an impairment loss has been registered.
McDonald’s requires $750,000 in cash or liquid assets, a $45,000 initial fee, plus a monthly service fee based on the restaurant’s sales performance and rent.
Explanation:
According to McDonald's, total project expenditures, including construction costs and upgrades, vary from $1 million to $2.2 million. The number is determined by the restaurant geography and scale and the preference of kitchen equipment, branding, design style and landscaping.
McDonald's charges a franchisee premium of $45,000 and a monthly service rate equivalent to 4% of gross sales. Franchisees also have to pay rent, a proportion of the monthly sales to the client.
The International Union of Service Employees estimates that franchisees pay an average of 10.7% of revenue in rental costs.
The startup costs for McDonald's franchisee are like those of KFC, Wendy and Taco Bell.
Answer:
(B) 40%
Explanation:
↓Q / ΔPrice = Price-elasicity
The price elasticity is the relationship between a change in price with the quantity demanded of a certain good assuming, other factor remains constant.
ΔPrice = (P0 - P1)/((P0 + P1)/2) = (2 - 6)/((2+6)/2) = 4/4 = 1
We know that price elasticity is 0.4
Now we can solve for the change in the quantity demanded:
↓Q/ 1 = 0.4
↓Q = 0.4 x 1 = 0.40 = 40%
