Answer:
d. 8.2%
Explanation:
The computation of the WACC is shown below:
= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)
where,
Weighted of debt = Debt ÷ total firm
= (0.60 ÷ 1.60)
= 0.375
And, the weighted of common stock = (Common stock ÷ total firm)
= 1 ÷ 1.60
= 0.625
The total firm is
= 0.60 + 1
= 1.60
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= (0.375 × 8%) × ( 1 - 35%) + (0.625 × 10%)
= 1.95% + 6.25%
= 8.20%
On the day the cash is received, the Cash account increases, and because of the double entry system, the asset account Accounts Receivable is decreased.
Answer:
The correct answer is E. master production schedules.
Explanation:
Master production schedules is not an input to the aggregate planning process all other options are its input,
Aggregate planning process is an attempt to respond to predicted demand within the constraints set by product, process and location decisions.
Hence, master production schedules is not a relevant input for this planning process but can be a result of the aggregate planning process. In other words master production schedule is formed after aggregated planning has been completed.
Answer:
because they cant stop spending money
Explanation:
money is money
Answer: $70,000
Explanation:
Impairment is said to exist if the Carrying amount of an Asset exceeds it's value of Future cashflows.
Calculating the Carrying amount therefore gives,
= Cost - Accumulated Depreciation
= 500,000 - 175,000
= $325,000
$325,000 > $300,000.
The Carrying Value is greater than the future cashflows so Impairment exists.
Impairment is calculated by,
= Carrying Amount - Fair Value
= 325,000 - 255,000
= $70,000
The amount of impairment loss recognized should therefore be $70,000.
