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jasenka [17]
3 years ago
5

560 students of the senior class voted to take a field

Mathematics
1 answer:
lesya [120]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

420

Step-by-step explanation:

you would first work out 3/4 of 560 so you would do 560÷4 which gives you 140. then you will times 3 by 140 which gives you 420. 420 went to the trip

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Anyone know what the answer is ?
alina1380 [7]
A perpendicular bisector
this means the length IJ=JK and the angles IJB, BJK are 90° (and their congruent angles too)

but this does not mean AB=IK, because their lengths can be arbitrary
for a similar reason AJ=IJ is wrong, essentially the same statement but with half lengths
BI=BK is true, because it is a bisector of IK this means the sides IJ=JK and JB is a shared side, therefore also having the same length. We also know IJB and BJK are congruent angles, so all in all these are congruent triangle and therefore also share the side length
BI=AK is false, because we don't know where the intersection point j is on AB, it could split the length into any arbitrary ratio, in case these are two equal sides then it would be true, but it doesn't hold for all other possibilities

so BI=BK is the solution
3 0
4 years ago
–12 – (–7) <br><br> A. 5 <br> B. -19 <br> C. -5 <br> D. 19
Harlamova29_29 [7]
Simplify:
-12 - (-7)
-5
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help with this im confused
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

-\frac34 -\frac14 i

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start with distributing: \frac1{4i}-\frac{3i}{4i} Simplify i with i in the second term, and rearrange.-\frac34 +\frac1{4i}. Since i in the denominator looks ugly, let's multiply top and bottom by i. -\frac34 +\frac i{4i^2} = -\frac34 +\frac i{4(-1)} =-\frac34 -\frac14 i. The middle passage is based on the fact that, by definition, i^2=-1

6 0
3 years ago
PLZZZZZ HELP AND HURRRRRY!
galben [10]

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Kayla needs $14,000 worth of new equipment for his shop. He can borrow this money at a discount rate of 10% for a year.
arlik [135]

Answer:

$15400

Step-by-step explanation:

Principle amount, P = $14000

Time, T = 1 year

Rate of interest, R = 10%

We know that maturity amount,

A = P\left (1+\frac{R}{100} \right )^{n}

where n is number of years

A = P\left (1+\frac{R}{100} \right )^{n}

A = 14000\left (1+\frac{10}{100}\right )^{1}

A = 14000\left (1+\frac{1}{10}\right )

A = 14000\left (\frac{11}{10}\right )

A = 15400

The maturity amount is $15400

6 0
3 years ago
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